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Question 1:

SIMULATION

Your company recently purchased a new building down the street from the existing office. For each of the tasks below, select the appropriate antenna type and encryption object for all wireless access point (AP).

1.

Create an encrypted wireless connection between the two buildings that BEST controls signal propagation, while maximizing security.

2.

Restrict the wireless signal generated by the access points (APs) inside Building 1, so that it minimizes broadcast beyond the building.

3.

Maximize wireless coverage inside Building 1.

4.

Building 1\’s internal wireless network is for visitors only and must not require any special configuration on the visitor\’s device to connect. Instructions: When you have completed the simulation, select the Done button to submit.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

You have been tasked with testing a CAT5e cable. A summary of the test results can be found on the screen.

Instructions

Step 1: Select the tool that was used to create the cable test results.

Step 2: Interpret the test results and select the option that explains the results. After you are done with your analysis, click the ‘Submit’ button.

Step 3: You have determined that the original crimp is faulty. Re-crimp the cable connector using the T568B cabling standard. Choose the correct cable for each pin in the connector by clicking on the pin and selecting a cable color.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.comms-express.com/infozone/article/t568a-and-t568b/


Question 3:

You are tasked with creating a network that will accomplish the following requirements.

Requirements:

The remote Sales Team must be able to connect to the corporate network.

Each department must have ONLY two PCs and a server.

Eqach department must be segmented from each other.

The following VLANs have been designed:

VLAN 2 – Finance

VLAN 12 – Sales

VLAN 22 – Human Resources (HR)

Routing for VLAN 12 is implemented on the router. Routing for VLAN 2 and VLAN 22 is on the switch.

Instructions

Complete the network by dragging the required objects onto the diagram.

Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

Workstations are unable to access the Internet after a recent power outage. Configure the appropriate devices to ensure ALL workstations have Internet connectivity. Instructions: All ports can be enabled (green) or disabled (red). When you have completed the simulation please select the Done button.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

All ports should be enabled.


Question 5:

You have been tasked with testing a CAT5e cable. A summary of the test results can be found on the screen.

Step 1: Select the tool that was used to create the cable test results.

Step 2: Interpret the test results and select the option that explains the results. After you are done with your analysis, click the ‘Submit Cable Test Analysis’ button.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

A Cable Certifier provides “Pass” or “Fail” information in accordance with industry standards but can also show detailed information when a “Fail” occurs. This includes shorts, the wire pairs involved and the distance to the short. When a short is identified, at the full length of the cable it means the cable has not been crimped correctly.


Question 6:

HOTSPOT Corporate headquarters provided your office a portion of their class B subnet to use at a new office location. Range Given: 172.30.232.0/24

Sales

57 devices

HR

23 devices

IT

12 devices

Finance 32 devices

Marketing 9 devices

INSTRUCTIONS

Allocate the minimum number of addresses (using CIDR notation) needed to accommodate each department.

After accommodating each department, identify the unused portion of the subnet by responding to the question on the graphic.

All drop downs must be filled.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

You have been tasked with implementing an ACL on the router that will:

1.

Permit appropriate, secure remote-access technologies from the management network to all other local network segments. Explicitly deny all other traffic from the management network

2.

Ensure the user subnet cannot remotely menage devices in the Linux and Windows Server segments

3.

Prohibit any traffic that has not been specifically allowed.

Correct Answer:

See the image for solution.


Question 8:

When configuring a wireless access point, Zach, a network administrator, needs to determine the MAC address of a local printer. Which of the following commands would be MOST helpful in determining the MAC address?

A. ping

B. arp

C. route

D. dig

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Kim, the client, has requested a cost-effective network solution to accommodate the ability to reconfigure the office space as needed. Which networking solution would provide the BEST solution?

A. Private IP Addressing

B. Wireless Access Points

C. Wide Area Networking

D. Virtual Local Area Networks

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

A SOHO office recently installed a wireless network for employees to use during lunch breaks. As such, the access point was placed in the kitchen area by the microwave. Employees have been reporting intermittent connectivity when using the wireless network. Which of the following would BEST improve connectivity?

A. Disable SSID broadcast

B. Increase the signal strength

C. Move the access point

D. Change the broadcast channel

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A SOHO with ten Wi-Fi equipped laptops needs a new network installed. Which of the following items would be used to setup the office using a new DSL line? (Select TWO).

A. Router

B. Wi-Fi Access point

C. Cable modem

D. Ten WiMAX adapters

E. Ten CAT6 patch cables

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

Which of the following security threats relies primarily on user deception and misinformation?

A. Rogue access points

B. DoS attacks

C. Man-in-the-middle attacks

D. Phishing

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

At which of the following layers of the OSI model do packets exist?

A. Network

B. Session

C. Data link

D. Transport

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A company is having a new T1 line installed. Which of the following will the connection MOST likely terminate to?

A. Core switch

B. MDF

C. Ethernet router

D. IDF

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A network technician performs several switch commands to enable various advanced features on the switch in the accounting department. During the configuration changes, several users from this department report connectivity issues. Which of the following logs would the network technician need to analyze to troubleshoot the connectivity issues?

A. Router logs

B. History logs

C. Startup/bootup config logs

D. Event Viewer logs

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Identify the four different levels where transaction controls are defined.

A. Expenditure Categories

B. Expenditure Organization

C. Employee

D. Project Organization

E. Expenditure Type

F. Person Type

Correct Answer: ACDE

You can configure transaction controls by the following:

(A)Expenditure Category (C)Employee (E)Expenditure Type Non-Labor Resource


Question 2:

What must be defined to enable a company to use an organization for a straight time expenditure?

A. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add Cost Centreas the Organization type.2. Add an organization classification ofHR Organization.3. Add the organizationto anorganization hierarchy.

B. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add the organization classifications HR Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event2.Add the organization to anorganizationhierarchy3. Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracleprojectimplementation option setting

C. Define the organization with the following:1.Add the organization classificationsProject/Task Owning Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event Organization.2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy.3.Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracle project implementation option setting.

D. Define the organization with the following:1. Add the organization classifications Project Expenditure/Event Organization.2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy.3.Add the organization hierarchy to the appropriate Oracle project implementation option setting.

E. Define the organization with the Following:1. Add the organization classifications HR Organization and ProjectExpenditure/Event2. Add the organization to an organization hierarchy.3. Define Organization Labor Costing Rules.

Correct Answer: E

Note: *You can set this at the Inventory Organization level in the Project Manufacturing Parameters window, the Costing tabbed region. This allows WIP employee resources and Project straight time hours to be summarized as Straight Time Expenditure Type Class. *expenditure type class An additional classification for expenditure types that indicates how Oracle Projects processes the expenditure types. For example, if you run the Distribute Labor Costs process, OracleProjects will calculate the cost of all expenditure items assigned to the Straight Time expenditure type class. Formerly known as system linkage


Question 3:

A US-based company is providing resources to a UK subsidiary and has implemented Oracle Projects intercompany billing solutions. How would the US company create the Accounts Payable invoice in the UK operating unit?

A. when the draft intercompany invoiceis approvedin the us Projects ledger

B. when the draftintercompanyrevenue is approved in the US Projectsledger

C. Invoice automatically createdas part of the PRC: Tieback Invoices fromReceivables in the USProject ledger

D. when the draftintercompanyinvoice is released in the US Projects Ledger

E. on creation ofthe Intercompany revenue in the US General Ledger

Correct Answer: C

The provider operating unit runs the process PRC: Tieback Invoices from Receivables, which automatically creates corresponding intercompany invoice supplier invoices ready to be interfaced to Oracle Payables in the receiver operating unit.

Note:

See step 6 below.

Intercompany Billing Processing FlowIntercompany billing processing requires the following steps:

The provider operating unit also imports project-related supplier costs from Oracle Purchasing and Oracle Payables and project-related expense report costs from Oracle Payables. Use Oracle Receivables to print the invoice as well as to

create accounting for Oracle Subledger Accounting.


Question 4:

You have defined a Non-Labor resource “Mini Truck” with an expenditure type “Vehicle” that has a rate of $100. This resource is attached to three Non-Labor resource organizations: “Construction-East,” “Construction-West,” and “Construction-Central.”

How do you set up a rate of $150 for usage charges when the “Mini Truck” owned by “Construction- Central” is charged to a project?

A. In the Project setup, enter a rate of $150 for”Construction-Central”in the organization overrides.

B. In the Non-Labor resources setup, select the”Construction-Central”organization and enter a rate of $150.

C. Create a new rate schedule with a rate of $150 for”Mini Truck”and attach it to the project.

D. Create a new rate schedule with a rate of $150 for”Mini Truck”and attach it to”Construction- Central.”

E. Write custom code in Non-Labor cost override extension.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

An employee has entered eight hours of billable time on a project. You want only three hours to be billable and five hours to be nonbillable. What is the adjustment action that should be applied on this expenditure item?

A. Transferthe item.

B. Change the billable status.

C. Split the item.

D. Apply billing hold.

E. Change quantity.

Correct Answer: C

You can split an item into two items so that you can process the two resulting split items differently. For example, you may have an item for 10 hours, of which you want 6 hours to be billable and 4 hours to be non-billable. You would split the item of 10 hours into two items of 6 hours and 4 hours, marking the 6 hours to be billable and 4 hours to be non-billable.

The resulting split items are charged to the same project and task as the original item.


Question 6:

Identify three transactions for which Oracle Project Costing enforces budgetary controls.

A. project-related purchase requisitions and purchase orders entered in Oracle Purchasing

B. expense reports entered In Oracle iExpenses

C. supplier invoices entered in Oracle Payables

D. contingent worker purchase orders entered in Oracle Purchasing

E. employee timecards entered in Oracle Time and Labor

Correct Answer: ACD

Note:

*Enable Budgetary Controls and Encumbrance Accounting

To use budgetary controls, you must implement budgetary control and encumbrance accounting for the ledger in Oracle General Ledger and enable encumbrance accounting in Oracle Payables or Oracle Purchasing.Encumbrance

accounting automatically creates encumbrances for requisitions, purchase orders, and invoices.

*PSA: Budgetary Control Report Template

This profile option can be set at the site, application, responsibility, and user levels. You must select Budgetary Control Results Template as the value for this profile option to enable users to view funds check results from Oracle Purchasing

and Oracle Payables after a funds check.


Question 7:

You have imported Labor transactions into Oracle Projects from Oracle Time and Labor by running the “PRC: Transaction Import” program.

What is the correct sequence to run the concurrent programs listed below to transfer the cost and accounting entries of these transactions to General Ledger?

1. PRC: Distribute Labor Cost 2.PRC: Transfer Journal Entries to GL 3.PRC: Create Accounting (with the Transfer to GL option set to “No”) 4.PRC: Interface Labor Costs to GL 5.PRC: Generate Cost Accounting Events 6.PRC: Distribute and Interface tabor costs to GL

A. 1, 3, 6

B. 1, 5, 3, 4

C. 1, 5, 3, 2

D. 1, 2

E. 3, 6

Correct Answer: C

The following activities take place as part of the expenditures process flow for labor costs:

If you define your own detailed accounting rules in Oracle Subledger Accounting, then Oracle Subledger Accounting overwrites default accounts, or individual segments of accounts, that Oracle Projects derives using AutoAccounting.


Question 8:

Which three Project foundation setups are shared across Operating Units in a multi-organization setup?

A. Project Classifications categories

B. ProjectTypes

C. Project Templates

D. Project numbers

E. ExpenditureTypes

Correct Answer: ABE

A:Project Classifications (Class Categories and Class Codes)

You define project classifications to group your projects according to categories you define. A project classification includes a class category and a class code. The category is a broad subject within which you can classify projects. The code is a specific value of the category.

B:In a multi-organization environment, you must set up project types for each operating unit. It is possible to have the same project type names in multiple operating units. However, each project type has it own attributes to control project processing by operating unit.

E:In a multi-organization environment, expenditure types are set up once and are shared across all operating units.


Question 9:

Which three statements are correct about defining a cost budget for a project?

A. You can enterbudget amount atthe project level, the top task level, or the lowest task level.

B. Youcan enterbudget amount only at the lowest task level.

C. You can enterbudget amountfora combination of lowest task and a labor resource.

D. Youcan enterbudget amount only at the top task level.

E. You can enterbudget amount for a combination of lowest task and a Non-Labor resource.

F. You cannot enterbudget amount for a combination of lowest task and a Non-Labor resource.

Correct Answer: ACF

A:You can budget at the project, top task, or lowest task level.

Note:

*When you create budgets and forecasts that do not use budgetary control and budget integration features, you can choose to enter budget and forecast amounts at any level of the financial structure by selecting one of the following lowest

level planning level options:

Project

Top Task

Lowest Task

When you choose the Lowest Task option, you can enter amounts at all levels of the financial structure including top tasks, middle-level tasks, and lowest tasks. You can also enter amounts at multiple task levels within the same branch of the

financial structure. Oracle Projects treats theamounts that you enter at each task level as incremental amounts that roll up into the total amounts for the project.


Question 10:

A project manager wants to create a revenue budget based on the project agreement and allocated funding. How can this be achieved?

A. by manually creatingarevenue budget

B. by selecting Funding revaluation in the systemimplementation options.

C. by selecting the “baseline project without budget” option, which will createa revenue budgetautomatically based on project funding

D. by selecting Invoiceat top taskfor the project

E. by setting transaction controls

Correct Answer: C

You can automatically create and baseline an Approved Revenue Budget for a project by checking the Baseline Funding without Budget check box in the Project Funding Inquiry window.

Note:Budget/Fund/Bill at Project or Top Task Level

You can create a revenue budget, funding source allocation and project agreement, and perform billing at either the project or the top task level. After you have created an allocation line at either level, you cannot change to another level. For example, if you have created a funding allocation for a top task, you cannot create another funding allocation for the same project without entering a top task.


Question 11:

A customer has provided a purchase order for $100k. The customer issues an additional $20k to the original purchase order. How would you invoice the total amount of $120k on only one invoice as per the terms of the contract?

A. Create a separateagreement and funding for $20k.

B. Update the existing agreement value to $120k and add an additionalfunding line against the project for $20k.

C. Update the cost budget to $l20k.

D. Createa manual invoice in Accounts Receivable for the additional value.

E. Update any existing transactionsto allow billing to the new amount.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which statement is true about the use of the calendar assigned to a project?

A. It is thedefault calendar assigned to resource requirements for the project.

B. It isthedefault calendar for the automatic generation of cost forecasts in Financial Plans.

C. It is the default calendar used for determining accounting periods.

D. It is used in the determination of currency exchange rates.

E. It is used by date-dependent system workflows.

Correct Answer: C

When you implement Oracle Projects, you can select the calendar used to maintain PA periods.

PA Period Type

Specify a Period Type, which is used to copy Project Accounting Periods from the calendar associated with the ledger. If you copy PA Periods from GL, Oracle Projects copies all of the periods of this Period Type to set up the PA Periods.

In a multiple organization environment, the PA Period Type is specified for each operating unit.


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Question 1:

Your customer has three sites defined in the system, site 1, site 2, and site 3. All sites have their own billing strategy defined and Balance Forward Billing is enabled for site 1 and Site 2 at the account level. How will bills be generated?

A. Sites 1, 2, and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.

B. Sites 2 and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.

C. Sites 1 and 2 activities will be included in a single bill.

D. Sites 1 and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You have created two transactions with a 30-day payment term. The first transaction is on January 29, 2015 and the second transaction is on January 31, 2015. The invoice date is the same as the system date. Both transactions are assigned an unsigned receipt method that has the lead days set to 60, number of bills receivable rule set to one per customer, and the bills receivable maturity date rule set to latest. Which statement is true when the create bills receivable batch is processed for a customer on January 31, 2015?

A. A Bills Receivable is created with the issue date as January 31, 2015 and the maturity date as March 2, 2015.

B. A Bills Receivable is created with the issue date as January 31, 2015 and the maturity date as February 28, 2015.

C. A Bills Receivable is created with the issue date as January 31, 2015 and the maturity date as March 30, 2015.

D. Two Bills Receivable transactions are created with maturity dates as March 30, 2015 and April 1, 2015.

E. Two Bills Receivable transactions are created with the issue dates as January 29, 2015 and January 31, 2015.

F. Two Bills Receivable transactions are created with the issue date and accounting date as January 29, 2015 and January 31, 2015, respectively.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

You are not able to initiate a bankruptcy request at the customer site level on behalf of a customer. Which two conditions are failing? (Choose two.)

A. Preferences must be enabled and Enable Bankruptcy must be set to Yes for the customer.

B. The Collections Administrator creates a bankruptcy request in the Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application and a collector should have the Collection Manager and Customer Profile Administrator roles assigned.

C. Preferences must be enabled and Enable Bankruptcy must be set to Yes in Manage Collections Preferences in the Functional Setup Manager for Advanced Collections.

D. The Collections Manager creates a bankruptcy request in the Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application and a collector should be configured as a resource.

E. Bankruptcy must be applied at the customer level, which includes all transactions at the customer, account, and Site levels.

F. The customer does not have the default strategy and default collector assigned at the customer account and site level.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Identify three activities that you can perform from the Collections Dashboard. (Choose three.)

A. Verify Customer Payments.

B. Assign a Collector to a delinquent customer.

C. View the Total Amount Due for delinquent customers.

D. Record an activity to create a task or tasks to follow up on a delinquent customer.

E. Update the work status of a work item for a delinquent customer.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 5:

You have created a sales invoice for $900 USD with an item line of $750 USD and a tax rate of 20%. The

customer has made a payment of $500 USD and you are required to process the cash application to apply

the $500 USD to the item line and $0 USD to tax.

How would you achieve this?

A. Set the credit classification revenue recognition policy to look for Line First and Tax Later.

B. Create a Memo Line or receivable activity to have the check box selected for Apply Item Line First.

C. Set Application Rule Set to Line First–Tax After at the transaction type level and/or a default value at system options.

D. Set Application Rule Set to Line First–Tax After at the transaction source level and/or a default value at the receipt method.

E. Set the payment terms revenue recognition policy to look for Line First and Tax Later.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which two items are required for customer invoicing? (Choose two.)

A. Lockbox

B. Customers

C. Remit-to-address

D. Customer Profile Class

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

Which two determinant types are used in reference data assignment? (Choose two.)

A. Business Unit

B. Account Segment

C. Project Segment

D. Project unit

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

A Billing Specialist creates an adjustment for an incorrect invoice that exceeds a user\’s approval limit.

What is the status of the adjustment?

A. Pending Approval

B. Forwarded for Approval

C. Pending Research

D. Approval Required

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When a customer opts to make a payment by a credit card, this receipt is identified as a(n) _______________.

A. miscellaneous receipt

B. quick cash receipt

C. manual receipt

D. automatic receipt

E. AutoLockbox receipt

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Your customer has a state tax of 20% and a city tax of 10% as non-inclusive tax rates that are applicable on a transaction line. Your invoice has two lines: Line1 with $600 USD and Line2 with $400 USD. What will be the resulting tax and invoice amounts for your tax invoice?

A. state tax of $166.67 USD for the invoice, city tax of $16.67 USD, and an invoice total of $1,184.34 USD.

B. state tax of $166.67 USD for the invoice, city tax of $91.11 USD, and an invoice total of $1,257.78 USD.

C. state tax of $166.67 USD for the invoice, city tax of $91.11 USD, and an invoice total of $1,000 USD.

D. state tax of $200 USD for the invoice, city tax of $10 USD, and an invoice total of $1,210 USD.

E. state tax of $200 USD for the invoice, city tax of $100 USD, and an invoice total of $1,300 USD.

Correct Answer: E


Question 11:

Which two are rules applicable to issue of refunds? (Choose two.)

A. You cannot refund more than either the original receipt amount or the remaining unapplied amount.

B. You can refund receipts that were either remitted or cleared.

C. You can issue a credit card refund to a customer who has made a cash payment.

D. You can refund receipts that are factored.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

Which role provides access to Receivables ?Revenue Adjustments Real Time OTBI Subject area?

A. Revenue Manager

B. Accounts Receivable Manager

C. Accounts Receivable Specialist

D. Billing Specialist

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

When reversing a receipt, if an adjustment or chargeback exists, how are the off-setting adjustments created?

A. manually, but without using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities

B. automatically, but without using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities

C. automatically by using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities

D. manually by using Chargeback Reversal activities

E. manually by using Adjustment Reversal activities

Correct Answer: C

When you reverse a receipt, if an adjustment or chargeback exists, Receivables automatically generates off-setting adjustments using the Adjustment Reversal and Chargeback Reversal activities.


Question 14:

Which three actions are facilitated through the Reconciliation Summary Report? (Choose three.)

A. drilldown to see reconciliation details and to make reconciling corrections

B. drilldown on the difference amounts to see specific reconciling items and the potential cause of the outof-balance condition

C. drilldown from any of the summarized Receivables and Accounting amounts to see detailed activity

D. drilldown to see details of unaccounted revenue transactions not transferred and posted to the General Ledger

E. drilldown to view data and use standard Excel functions such as sum, find, sort, and filtering without actually downloading to Excel

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 15:

What is the order used to group transaction lines during the AutoInvoice Import process?

A. Transaction Source, Customer Site Profile, Customer Account Profile, system options

B. System options, Customer Site Profile, Transaction Source, Customer Account Profile

C. Transaction Source, Customer Account Profile, Customer Site Profile, system options

D. Transaction Source, Customer Account Profile, system options, Customer Site Profile

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which statement is true when working with condition codes?

A. Only one condition code can be used per item set.

B. Condition codes are not considered when an item is issued.

C. A condition rate of 100% must exist for at least one condition code.

D. Condition codes can only be associated with an item in the Item Master application.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

When can an invoice be created from the Labor Reporting application?

A. When the labor is approved.

B. When the work order is approved.

C. When the labor is waiting approval.

D. When the work order is completed.

Correct Answer: D


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B. Master Server, Media Server and Client

C. Server, Storage Agent and Client

D. Cell Manager, Devices and Client

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which feature of EMC NetWorker allows multiplexed, heterogeneous data to reside on the same tape?

A. OTF

B. TAR

C. CPIO

D. ZIP

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which EMC NetWorker feature allows for a failed backup to restart at a known good point prior to the backup failure?

A. CheckPoint Restart

B. Client Retries

C. Scheduled Backup Attempts

D. Restart Window

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An administrator in an EMC NetWorker environment wants to know the exact backup creation date and time along with the backup level.

Which EMC NetWorker functionality should be used to find this information?

A. Tracking and reporting

B. Aging

C. NMC Monitoring

D. Daemon log

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

In EMC NetWorker, what best describes the source capacity licensing model?

A. Aggregate of a full backup from all sources

B. Aggregate of differential backups from all sources

C. Aggregate of incremental backups from all sources

D. Aggregate of Level 9 backups from all sources

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A storage administrator backs up an Exchange server to an EMC Data Domain system. The Data Domain system is configured as an advanced file device. The administrator now wants to create a copy of the backup and send it to tape. The backup job completed at 8pm. The administrator wants the copy to be created at 9pm.

Which option should be used?

A. Use the Scheduled Cloning attribute to schedule a clone job to start at 9pm.

B. Run the nsrclone command at 8pm and the second copy will be directed to tape at 9pm.

C. Enable the “clones” attribute in the client\’s group setting.

D. From the Administration window, under Media select Save Sets and then the Query Save Set tab. Create clone copies of the backup at 8pm.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which method would you use to recover a file to its same location when the entry for that file no longer exists in the client file index?

A. Save set

B. Browsable

C. Recoverpsm

D. Clone

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

The EMC NetWorker software distribution feature is supported on which platform?

A. Linux

B. MAC

C. Netware

D. Open VMS

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

An EMC NetWorker backup environment consists of a large database server to be backed up. Backups are performed nightly.

Which schedule would you use starting on Sunday to minimize the number of save sets required for recovery on Friday morning?

A. B. C. D.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What is a benefit of EMC Networker\’s Open Tape Format (OTF)?

A. Enables storage nodes to be moved to hosts with different OS

B. Allows an unlimited number of save streams to be simultaneously written to tape

C. Permits segregation of backup data into a specific set of tape volumes

D. Enables backup data to be written and read in the local language of the storage node

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which EMC NetWorker host can belong to multiple data zones?

A. Client

B. Storage Node

C. Server

D. Remote Storage Node

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which type of device is referred to as a BOOST device?

A. Data Domain

B. File Type

C. Advance File Type

D. Cloud

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which backup level requires the fewest number of volumes to restore?

A. Full

B. Level 5

C. Level 1

D. Incremental

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

What is a characteristic of how the EMC NetWorker modules integrate with native applications?

A. EMC NetWorker module acts as an intermediate layer between EMC NetWorker and the native application.

B. The application vendor provides EMC NetWorker module to allow data protection with EMC NetWorker.

C. EMC NetWorker module runs on EMC NetWorker server and acts as an intermediate layer for backup data from EMC NetWorker client.

D. EMC NetWorker module runs on EMC NetWorker storage node and acts as an intermediate layer for backup data from EMC NetWorker client.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which Microsoft VSS component ensures that the application data is consistent when a shadow copy is created?

A. Writer

B. Requestor

C. Provider

D. Interceptor

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?

A. The bootloader

B. The inetd program

C. The init program

D. The kernel

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?

A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.

B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.

C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.

D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.

B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.

C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block orcharacter devices in /dev/ using mknod.

D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.

E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 4:

Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. Boot device order

B. Linux kernel version

C. Timezone

D. Hardware configuration

E. The system\’s hostname

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. shutdown -r now

B. shutdown -r “rebooting”

C. telinit 6

D. telinit 0

E. shutdown -k now “rebooting”

Correct Answer: AC


Question 6:

Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A. startd

B. systemd

C. Upstart

D. SysInit

E. SysV init

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 7:

What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A. Device IRQ settings

B. PCI bus speed

C. System battery type

D. Device vendor identification

E. Ethernet MAC address

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 8:

Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is safe to perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. shutdown -R 1 now

B. shutdown -single now

C. init 1

D. telinit 1

E. runlevel 1

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

Which of the following commands will write a message to the terminals of all logged in users?

A. bcast

B. mesg

C. print

D. wall

E. yell

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?

A. silent

B. verbose=0

C. nomesg

D. quiet

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

During a system boot cycle, what is the program that is run after the BIOS completes its tasks?

A. The bootloader

B. The inetd program

C. The init program

D. The kernel

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

The system is having trouble and the engineer wants to bypass the usual /sbin/init start up and run /bin/sh. What is the usual way to pass this change to the kernel from your boot loader?

A. Start in runlevel 1.

B. Pass init=/bin/sh on the kernel parameter line.

C. Pass /bin/sh on the kernel parameter line.

D. Pass start=/bin/sh on the kernel parameter line.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

After modifying GNU GRUB\’s configuration file, which command must be run for the changes to take effect?

A. kill -HUP $(pidof grub)

B. grub-install

C. grub

D. No action is required

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of a given dpkg package?

A. apt-cache depends-onpackage

B. apt-cache dependencies package

C. apt-cache depends package

D. apt-cache requires package

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which of the following options is used in a GRUB Legacy configuration file to define the amount of time that the GRUB menu will be shown to the user?

A. hidemenu

B. splash

C. timeout

D. showmenu

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

An administrator currently manages AR2200 devices in the network through a single password, however the company wishes to introduce another two administrators and provide unique user credentials and privilege levels for telnet access to the network devices. What action can be taken? (Choose three)

A. Configure three users under the AAA-view, and assign each a different password.

B. The authentication mode must be changed to AAA.

C. Each administrator must be assigned a privilege level.

D. A public IP address must be assigned to each user for telnet access

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 2:

Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose three)

A. Password authentication

B. AAA local authentication

C. MD5 authentication

D. No authentication

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 3:

Which authentication modes does AAA support? (Choose three).

A. None

B. Local

C. Radius

D. 802.1X

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 4:

Refer to the configuration output. RTA has been configured using AAA as shown, and associated with the “huawei” domain. For users in the huawei domain, which authentication-scheme will be used?

A. au1

B. au2

C. au1 will be used. When au1 is deleted, users will use au2

D. au2 will be used. When au2 is deleted, users will use au1

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A user accesses a server supporting AAA, for which the authorization mode on the AAA server has been configured using the command “authorization-mode hwtacacs if-authenticated”. Which of the following statements regarding this command are true? (Choose three).

A. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using local authentication.

B. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using remote authentication.

C. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will bypass authentication.

D. The hwtacacs server will authorize the user.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 6:

Which of the following descriptions regarding eSight is not correct?

A. eSight is used to monitor and manage enterprise networks.

B. eSight supports only Huawei devices

C. eSight supports WLAN management and monitoring of hotspot coverage.

D. eSight supports the backup of configuration files and network traffic analysis.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What of the following statements is correct regarding access control list types and ranges?

A. A basic ACL value ranges from 1000-2999

B. An advanced ACL value ranges from 3000-4000

C. A layer 2 ACL value ranges from 4000-4999

D. An interface ACL value ranges 1000-2000

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?

A. Source interface

B. Destination port number

C. Protocol number

D. Time-range

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Refer to the configuration output. A network administrator configured the ACL on router RTA, as shown.

Which of the following statements regarding the rule order are correct? (Choose two).

A. The rule-number of the first rule is 1

B. The rule-number of the first rule is 5

C. The rule-number of the second rule is 2

D. The rule-number of the second rule is 10

Correct Answer: BD


Question 10:

Refer to the graphic. The network administrator wishes to deny Host A access to the HTTP server but allow access to all other servers. Which of the following ACL rules will achieve this?

A. Rule deny tcp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 21

B. Rule deny tcp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 80

C. Rule deny udp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 21

D. Rule deny udp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 80

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Following a failure of services in the network, an administrator discovered that the configuration in one of the enterprise routers had been changed. What actions can be taken by the administrator to prevent further changes? (Choose three)

A. The administrator should limit access by setting the login privilege of users to 0.

B. The administrator should configure AAA to manage user authorization on the router.

C. The administrator should configure an ACL to allow only the administrator to manage the router.

D. The administrator should configure port-security on the router

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

[RTA]acl 2001 [RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule 20 permit source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 [RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule 10 deny source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the configuration of the ACL on RTA?

A. Packets from network 20.1.1.0/24 network will be denied.

B. Packets from network 20.1.1.0/24 network will be permitted.

C. Packets destined for network 20.1.1.0/24 will be denied.

D. Packets destined for network 20.1.1.0/24 will be permitted.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

[RTA]acl 2001 [RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule deny source 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.0 [RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule deny source 172.16.0.0 0.255.0.0

Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the configuration of the ACL on RTA? (Choose two).

A. Packets from network 172.16.1.1/32 will be denied.

B. Packets from network 172.16.1.0/24 will be denied

C. Packets from network 172.17.1.0/24 will be denied

D. Packets from network 172.18.0.0/16 will be denied.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

The network administrator wants to improve the performance of network transmission, what steps can the administrator take? (Choose two)

A. Change the work mode to full duplex of each end station.

B. Link the end stations together using a switch.

C. Change the work mode to half duplex of each end station.

D. Link the end stations together using a hub.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

On Huawei switch, which of the following commands can be used to set port duplex mode as “auto negotiation”? (Choose two)

A. duplex negotiation auto

B. duplex auto-negotiation

C. duplex auto

D. undo duplex

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

A startup company is considering an HPE Nimble solution. They have a small IT budget, and they need to be future-proof for changing performance requirements. How does the Nimble architecture meet the company needs? (Select two.)

A. native support for block and file services

B. minimal downtime technology refresh

C. Support for FCoE

D. non-disruptive technology refresh

E. ability to mix-and-match All flash and hybrid nodes

Correct Answer: CE


Question 2:

You are designing an HPE 3PAR replication solution for a customer in a metropolitan area that includes two main sites and a third disaster recovery site. The main sites will be in synchronous replication. The disaster recovery site can be

asynchronously replicated.

What are two points you should highlight to the customer? (Select two.)

A. Tertiary site volume paths are active/read only

B. Quorum Witness at the third site enables automatic failover to tertiary site

C. Secondary site volumes paths are active/optimized read/write

D. Quorum Witness at the third site enables automatic failover to the secondary site

E. Primary site volumes paths are standby read/write

Correct Answer: AD


Question 3:

A customer has an HPE Nimble Storage array. They plan to add a second HPE Nimble Storage array to their existing group. What is the expected write behavior to a volume once the new array is added to the same pool as the existing array?

A. Data will be written to the new array until it is the same percent full as the original array

B. Data will immediately start to alternate writes between the two arrays

C. Data will continue to write to the first array until there is 40% free space available, and then alternate writes between the two arrays

D. Data will be stripped and automatically re-balanced across the two arrays

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A customer has three 4-node HPE 3PAR arrays. Two of the arrays are deployed at a primary site, and the third array is deployed at a disaster recovery site. Both arrays at the primary site are replicated to the single array at the disaster

recovery site.

All replication is asynchronous periodic. All arrays are utilizing 4 RCIP links for replication.

The customer needs to add a third array at the primary site. They would like to use the existing array at the disaster recovery site as a replication target for this additional array.

What must the architect consider to meet this customer requirement?

A. A single pair of RCIP ports on one array can have a Remote Copy relationship with up to two other arrays

B. Remote Copy fan-in ratios of greater than 2:1 are only supported with RCIP when using 10 Gb Ethernet links

C. Arrays involved in a Remote Copy relationship must have the same number of node pairs

D. Asynchronous streaming replication must be used for Remote Copy fan-in ratios greater than 2:1

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A customer needs to setup specific replication bandwidth requirements to limit the bandwidth between HPE Nimble Storage replication partners, which is different than the bandwidth requirements to another Replication Partner. Which Bandwidth parameter should the customer use?

A. Array-to-array Limit

B. Per-partner limit

C. Partner Maximum limit

D. Overall limit policy

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

You have chosen to utilize HPE 3PAR synchronous replication in order to meet the customer stated requirement of RPO=0. What is a key consideration you need to explain to the customer?

A. Host write latencies will decrease

B. Host write latencies will increase

C. Host writes can be committed to either primary or backup storage before host acknowledgment

D. RC sync can only be deployed over FC links

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-a00057870en_usanddocLocale=en_US(p.17)


Question 7:

You are proposing a replication solution to a customer. A competitor offers a solution based on storage virtualization appliances. What should you stress about an HPE 3PAR replication solution in regard to the competitor\’s proposal?

A. It will add on-the-fly encryption and compression to data being replicated outside the customer\’s DC

B. It means less overhead for management and monitoring

C. It offers best-in-class backup and restore capabilities

D. It offers superior virtualization of 3rd party storage arrays

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has the environment shown. They currently perform application-consistent daily full backups via Veeam backup to an HPE StoreOnce device. These backups are then replicated to an alternate device using Catalyst copy.

Changing business requirements have mandated the RPO and RTO for the customer\’s SQL databases be reduced to 15 minutes. Due to the size of the databases, it is not possible to meet this requirement with their existing backout

application.

What should you recommend the customer implement in order to meet their new requirement?

A. HPE 3PAR Remote Copy in Synchronous Mode

B. HPE RMC Express Protect

C. SPE StoreOnce Cloud Bank

D. HPE 3PAR Remote Copy in Asynchronous Streaming Mode

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which advantage is provided by HPE 3PAR Remote Copy across all replication modes?

A. support of all Remote Copy topologies

B. automatic recovery of array failure independent of Remote copy topology

C. Remote Copy support up to 100ms latency over all transport layers

D. all Remote Copy topologies yield identical RPO and RTO

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://manuals.directutor.com/3COM/4AA6-2851ENW/index.html?page=9


Question 10:

A customer has started to load their HPE 3PAR 8450 with data, but are not sure what data reduction they are achieving. They ask you to run analysis and estimate the deduplication ratio of data currently on a virtual volume (VV). Which CLI command should you use to understand data reduction ratios?

A. showvv

B. tunevv

C. convertvv

D. checkvv

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://manualzz.com/doc/34471724/hpe-3par-adaptive-data-reduction


Question 11:

A customer needs to new storage solution, including replication. The replication solution does not need to provide an RTO or RPO of zero.

The customer suffers from severe VM sprawl and has experienced unidentified storage service-level degradations.

What should you point out during your presentation of the solution?

A. Hardware-assisted parity generation and deduplication mitigate the changing performance requirements

B. VMs are always individually visible to the array with automatic enablement of VVOL technology

C. InfoSight and VM details would help in identifying misbehaving VMs putting a high load on the array

D. When a storage system is being overloaded, the replication software will automatically move the workload

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A customer has HPE B-series switches and is not interested in Extended Fabric licenses for edge switches. They have sites over 10km apart. Which SAN extension technology should you recommend?

A. FC over DWDM

B. FC over CWDM

C. FCoE

D. FCIP

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04499584.pdf


Question 13:

How does the HPE Nimble Storage product strategy support a customer\’s investment protection requirements for today and the future?

A. by supporting replication with arrays from other vendors

B. by supporting the implementation of third party cache, spinning media, and flash media

C. by supporting replication between current and previous-generation array models

D. by supporting the repurposing of obsolete array controllers as high-density servers

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A customer has a pair of HPE 3PAR arrays with Synchronous Replication enabled. They need recommendations for deploying the Quorum Witness when implementing Peer Persistence. What should you recommend to the customer?

A. The Quorum Witness should be in the secondary data center, with IP connectivity to the HPE 3PAR there

B. The Quorum Witness should be in a third data center, with FC connectivity to both HPE 3PARs

C. The Quorum Witness should be in the primary data center, with FC connectivity to the HPE 3PAR there

D. The Quorum Witness should be in a third data center, with IP connectivity to both HPE 3PARs

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA5-8914ENW.pdf


Question 15:

A customer has recently acquired another company that is located less than 3 km from their current main location. Both locations use HPE B-Series products in their storage environment. The customer needs to merge the 2 locations together

while still using the current WAN and networking infrastructure at both locations. They need to keep their initial cost down until they are able to redesign both networking infrastructures.

Which protocol should be incorporated when providing a proposal to meet the customer needs?

A. ISCSI

B. CWDM

C. DWDM

D. FCIP

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which organization is responsible for certifying that products and technology satisfy Wi-Fi interoperability?

A. Wi-Fi Alliance

B. IETF

C. IEEE

D. ISO

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

How should a Mist AP43 be mounted?

A. mounted vertically above ceilings

B. mounted horizontally on a ceiling

C. mounted horizontally on a table

D. mounted vertically on a wall

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which Mist feature provides an overview of the user experience?

A. Service Level Expectations

B. Policy

C. Location Services

D. Insights

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which organization is responsible for creating the 802.11 standard?

A. Wi-Fi Alliance

B. Ethernet Technology Consortium

C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

D. International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What are two requirements to connect an AP to the Mist Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. You need a CA SSL certificate.

B. You need DNS resolution.

C. You need a static IP address.

D. You need a DHCP server

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

What does RSSI measure?

A. frequency

B. signal strength

C. interference

D. noise

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which Mist feature offers Al-based interactive troubleshooting?

A. Marvis

B. Wireless Assurance

C. Insights

D. Site Configuration

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You have designed a WLAN to satisfy primary coverage, secondary coverage, and capacity requirements. However, you still do not have enough BLE radios to satisfy your location requirements. You want to fill the gaps with a low cost, BLE- only device.

Which Mist device will satisfy this requirement?

A. AP41

B. BT11

C. AP32

D. AP43

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What does 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) specify as the maximum channel width?

A. 160 MHz

B. 60 MHz

C. 20 MHz

D. 40 MHz

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which Juniper Mist device enables seamless roaming for large campus networks through on-premises tunneling?

A. Mist BT11

B. Mist AP43

C. Mist AP33

D. Mist Edge

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Mist Radio Resource Management makes dynamic changes to which resource?

A. RF template

B. channel width

C. channel

D. BLE channel

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

What are two methods of activating a Mist AP? (Choose two.)

A. Use the activation code.

B. Use the claim code.

C. Use the serial number.

D. Use the universal product code.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

The DHCP server has run out of address leases on a site.

In this scenario, which SLE would be useful to what is happening?

A. capacity

B. throughput

C. roaming

D. successful connects

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which two statements are correct about Marvis? (Choose two.)

A. Marvis is the main configuration tool.

B. Marvis lets you ask questions about your network.

C. Marvis will send custom reports.

D. Marvis can be used as a proactive monitoring tool.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 15:

A customer wants to physically wire their interior automated sliding doors to Mist APs to directly control location access to certain office areas.

In this scenario, which Mist AP capability allows them to accomplish this task?

A. header pins

B. IoT interface

C. optical sensor

D. audio sensor

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

An Avaya IP Office customer with digital telephones uses their outbound digital lines at a capacity of 95%. Which capacity increase should be considered when planning for future growth?

A. The number of trunks

B. The number of users

C. The number of VCM channels

D. The number of hunt groups

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101065742


Question 2:

Which statement about the Manager Application for IP Office Server Edition is true?

A. Manager includes Voicemail Pro Client

B. Manager shows the status of all servers on one screen

C. Manager has been fully ported to Web Management

D. Manager runs on the server itself

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

When setting up Alarm Notifications on an Avaya IP Office solution, which three destination criteria can be selected? (Choose three.)

A. Syslog

B. Trap

C. Email

D. Outcalling

E. SysMon

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: https://documentation.avaya.com/bundle/AdministeringAvayaIPOfficePlatformManagerR11.0/ page/Alarms.html


Question 4:

What is the maximum number of Combo cards supported on the IP500 V2 control unit?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 1

D. 3

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

You are upgrading your Avaya IP Office network with a new release of software. What is the procedure to install new binary files for the Avaya IP phones?

A. The telephones receive new firmware using HTTP

B. The system pushes the firmware to the telephones automatically

C. SFTP is used to replace old files with new ones

D. The new binary files are included with the DHCP information

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which of the IP Office deployments listed below has the highest specifications and functional capabilities?

A. Avaya IP Office Server Edition

B. Avaya IP Office Preferred Edition

C. Avaya IP Office 500v2 with UCM Server

D. Avaya IP Office Essential Edition

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://ipofficekb.avaya.com/businesspartner/ipoffice/mergedProjects/manuals/Avaya IP% 20Office Platform Feature Description_en-us.pdf (13)


Question 7:

Which Voicemail Pro solution is only supported with IP Office Select?

A. Dual Voicemail Pro

B. Centralized Voicemail Pro

C. Stand-alone Voicemail Pro

D. Distributed Voicemail Pro

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

After the installation of Avaya Equinox Client on a User\’s Computer has been completed, which User Information is needed when the client is configured manually?

A. The User\’s Name and Login Code

B. The User\’s Name and Password

C. The User\’s Extension and Password

D. The User\’s Extension and Login Code

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

On an Avaya IP Office solution, which feature can release resources by letting a call use the IP network when calling from one site to another?

A. Loop Start

B. Allow Direct Media Path

C. Silence Compression

D. H323

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

On an Avaya IP Office, where can the administrator password be changed?

A. By selecting resources on SSA

B. By using CLI commands when access to DTE port

C. On the Security tab on System settings

D. On the Security settings

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://ximacare.ximasoftware.com/hc/en-us/articles/360006609452-How-to-change-theAvaya-IPO-Monitor-Password


Question 11:

An Avaya IP Office customer wants all incoming calls from the 212 area code to be routed to the Sales hunt group.

To program an Incoming Call Route (ICR) to meet this requirement, which two steps are needed? (Choose two.)

A. Edit the default ICR Destination to Sales hunt group

B. Enter 212 in the Incoming Number field

C. Select the Receptionist hunt group as the fallback extension

D. Add an ICR for Any Voice with the destination of the Sales hunt group

E. Enter 212 in the Incoming CLI field

Correct Answer: CD


Question 12:

To install and administer IP Office Server Edition, Voicemail Pro and System Status Application (SSA), which two components are required? (Choose two.)

A. A PC with the CentOS operating system

B. A Windows PC with a Windows operating system

C. The Core Server(s) with installation files

D. Any device with a browser

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://ipofficekb.avaya.com/businesspartner/ipoffice/mergedProjects/manuals/serveredition/ Avaya IP Office Platform Server Edition Reference Configuration_en-us.pdf


Question 13:

Which Voicemail Pro element allows a customer to modify a condition in a call flow without using the Voicemail Pro Client?

A. Test User Variable Action

B. Set User Variable Action

C. Test Condition Action

D. Test User Action

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

In an Avaya IP Office deployment, why does the Avaya Equinox?Client require the 46xxsettings.txt file?

A. The Client does not require the 46xxsettings.txt file to connect to an Avaya IP Office

B. The Client uses conference settings contained in the 46xxsettings.txt file to connect to an Avaya IP Office

C. The Client writes SIP values into the 46xxsettings.txt file

D. The Client connections are logged in the 46xxsettings.txt file

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

With the tool Debug View, you can view the voice mail server activity.

Which statement about the Debug View is true?

A. It can run somewhere on the network

B. It must be run on the Voicemail Pro Server

C. It must be run on the Avaya IP Office Manager PC

D. It is integrated in Voicemail Pro Client

Correct Answer: B