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Question 1:

Select four required attributes when defining a Ledger in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose four.)

A. Calendar

B. Currency

C. Legal Entity

D. Business Group

E. Chart of Accounts

F. Accounting Convention

Correct Answer: ABEF


Question 2:

A table has 15 Attribute columns to capture additional information. The attributes 1-12 are set up in the Descriptive Flexfield as Global Segments. How many attributes can be set up under any new context?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 15

D. 12

E. 11

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for its operations in the U.S. and Canada.

The company is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to set the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control. You

set the MO: Operating Unit profile option at the _____ level.

A. Site

B. User

C. Application

D. Responsibility

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which business flow is used for activities starting from product purchase to creating and closing service requests?

A. Click to Order

B. Campaign to Order

C. Contract to Renewal

D. Request to Resolution

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

ABC Corporation will be implementing Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. Purchasing, Payables, Receivables, General Ledger, Assets, Projects, Order Management and Cash Management will be implemented. Select three business flows that would involve these products. (Choose three.)

A. Click to Order

B. Order to Cash

C. Procure to Pay

D. Project to Profit

E. Demand to Build

F. Campaign to Order

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 6:

Daily Business Intelligence reporting is available across all major product areas. Identify the Daily Business Intelligence tool that would provide manufacturing costs for an item over time by various cost elements.

A. Product Intelligence

B. Financials Intelligence

C. Purchasing Intelligence

D. Commodity Intelligence

E. Manufacturing Intelligence

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Identify the component in Subledger Accounting that enables you to meet the requirements of multiple accounting representations for an event.

A. Event Definition

B. Event Classification

C. Subledger Accounting Method

D. Application Accounting Definition

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.)

A. Ledger

B. Legal Entity

C. Operating Unit

D. Reporting Level

E. Reporting Context

Correct Answer: DE


Question 9:

XYZ Corp. has acquired ABC Corp. XYZ operates with Multi-Org Access Control. Consequently XYZ Corp. needs to add additional Operating Units. Identify the statement that describes the sequence for adding additional Operating Units.

A. It is not possible to add additional Operating Units.

B. Set the MO: Operating Unit profile option, run the Replicate Seed Data concurrent request, create the Operating Unit, and create new responsibilities as necessary.

C. Set the MO: Security Profile profile option, run the Replicate Seed Data concurrent request, create the Operating Unit, and create new responsibilities as necessary.

D. Create the Operating Unit, run the Replicate Seed Data concurrent request, create new responsibilities as necessary, and set up the MO: Default Operating Unit profile option.

E. Create the Operating Unit, run the Replicate Seed Data concurrent request, assign the Operating Unit to a security hierarchy, run Security List maintenance concurrent program, create new responsibilities as necessary, and set up the MO: Security Profile profile option.

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

Identify three correct statements about the Operating Unit in a Multi-Org model of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose three.)

A. It is the highest level in the Multi-Org structure.

B. It is an organization type that secures transaction data.

C. An Operating Unit can be assigned to multiple Legal Entities.

D. An Operating Unit can be associated with a single Legal Entity.

E. Multiple Operating Units can be assigned to a single responsibility.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 11:

Identify two features of the Notification System in Oracle Workflow. (Choose two.)

A. executes workflow rules and functions

B. enables any user with access to the Internet to be included in a workflow process

C. notifies the loading of a workflow process definition file from a flat file to a database

D. leverages Oracle Advanced Queuing to enable business events to communicate across systems

E. provides access to the worklist from Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 through the worklist web pages

Correct Answer: BE


Question 12:

What are the three characteristics of an application and Oracle ID when defining a Data Group? (Choose three.)

A. An application can be listed only once in a Data Group.

B. An Oracle ID can be paired with more than one application.

C. An application can be listed more than once in a Data Group.

D. Custom applications registered with Oracle Applications can be included in a Data Group.

E. Custom applications can be included in a Data Group and paired with an existing Oracle ID.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 13:

Identify two features of a table-validated Value Set. (Choose two.)

A. A table-validated Value Set has no list of approved values associated with it.

B. Table-validated Value Sets obtain their lists of approved values from existing application tables.

C. The values in a table-validated Value Set are stored in Oracle Application Object Library\’s tables.

D. In a table-validated Value Set, you need to enter each value manually using the Segment values window.

E. A table-validated Value Set enables you to use your own application tables as Value Sets for Flexfield Segments.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 14:

Which three statements are true about Oracle Workflow and Oracle Alerts? (Choose three.)

A. Alerts can perform only one action.

B. Workflow can support complex conditional logic.

C. Alerts can be configured for any frequency of occurrence.

D. Workflows can wait for a user response during an activity.

E. Alerts can perform multiple actions in a sequence that you specify.

F. Alerts run only when a database record is either updated or created.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 15:

Which two statements are true regarding ownership of shared entities? (Choose two.)

A. Items is owned by Oracle Purchasing, whereas Locations is owned by Oracle Receivables.

B. Suppliers is owned by Oracle Purchasing, whereas Units of Measure is owned by Oracle Inventory.

C. Ledger is owned by Oracle General Ledger, whereas Locations is owned by Oracle Human Resources.

D. Customers is owned by Oracle Human Resources, whereas Locations is owned by Oracle Receivables.

E. Sales Force is owned by Oracle Order Management, whereas Employees is owned by Oracle Human Resources.

Correct Answer: BC


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Question 1:

Which two commands are used to query the arp-table of a logical switch? (Choose two.)

A. get logical-switch arp-table

B. get logical-switch arp-table

C. get logical-switch arp-table

D. get logical-switch arp-table

E. get logical-switch arp-table

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://vdc-download.vmware.com/vmwb-repository/dcr-public/c3fd9cef-6b2b-4772-93be-3fe60ce064a1/1f67b9e1-b111-4de7-9ea1-39931d28f560/NSX-T Command-Line Interface Reference.html


Question 2:

A security administrator needs to configure a firewall rule based on the domain name of a specific application.

Which field in a distributed firewall rule does the administrator configure?

A. Policy

B. Profile

C. Service

D. Source

Correct Answer: B

On the Profile page, choose which profiles to apply the rule to. For most servers, you should apply the rule to all three profiles, because servers are usually continually connected to a single network. For mobile computers in domain environments, you typically need to apply firewall rules only to the Domain profile.

Reference: https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2224362andseqNum=2


Question 3:

A customer is planning deployment of a third-party OpenStack application. Which is used to grant permissions to the application on NSX Manager?

A. Guest Identity

B. Cloud Identity

C. Principal Identity

D. API Identity

Correct Answer: D

The Enterprise Administrator role gets the same access to the NSX Manager appliance and the API as the NSX Manager admin user. The other NSX roles get read-only access to the NSX Manager appliance and the API. Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-Data-Center-for-vSphere/6.4/com.vmware.nsx.admin.doc/GUID-A8808B7C-799B-4F9A-AA53-270D1AD89247.html


Question 4:

What are three functions of a Tier-0 Gateway in a multi-tenant service provider environment? (Choose three.)

A. acts as a default gateway for the tenant workloads

B. enables east-west connectivity to the tenant workloads

C. interconnects the Tier-1 gateways of multiple tenants

D. provides isolation between the tenants

E. provides first-hop routing for the tenant workloads

F. enables north-south connectivity to the tenant workloads

Correct Answer: CDF


Question 5:

What are the supported N-VDS modes?

A. DPDK Datapath

B. Enhanced Datapath

C. Overlay Datapath

D. Standard Datapath

E. Secure Datapath

Correct Answer: BD

N-VDS Mode: There are 2 modes for N-VDS: Standard or Enhanced Datapath.

Reference: http://www.vstellar.com/2018/08/03/learning-nsx-t-part-8configuring-transport-zone-and-transport-nodes/


Question 6:

What is the most restrictive NSX-T built-in role which will allow a user to apply configuration changes on a NSX Edge?

A. Network Operator

B. Network Engineer

C. Cloud Service Administrator

D. NSX Administrator

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center/2.4/administration/GUID-26C44DE8-1854-4B06-B6DA-A2FD426CDF44.html


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator Is trying to configure a medium load balancer in a production environment, but is getting the error message shown in the exhibit. Which step must the administrator perform to remediate the problem?

A. Reduce the size of the virtual pool.

B. Restart the NSX Manager.

C. Power-off the existing load balancer and change its size.

D. Place the Tier-1 Gateway in a large edge cluster and redeploy the load balancer.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

An NSX administrator would like to export syslog events that capture messages related to NSX host preparation events. Which message ID (msgid) should be used in the syslog export configuration command as a filter?

A. SYSTEM

B. FABRIC

C. MONITORING

D. GROUPING

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which network tool cloud an administrator use on an ESXi 6.7 host to capture packets when troubleshooting connectivity issues?

A. Wireshark

B. pktcap-uw

C. net-stats

D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: B

If you do when troubleshooting connectivity issues on your Virtualization environment. This post will help you to capture Network traffic on ESXi host using pktcap-uw tool.

Reference: http://www.vmwarearena.com/how-to-capture-network-trafficpacket-on-esxi-hosts/


Question 10:

Which two statements describe the characteristics of the Services Router (SR) component of a Tier-0 Gateway? (Choose two.)

A. Edge cluster is mandatory for SR to be created.

B. SR can exist on both hypervisor transport nodes and Edge transport nodes.

C. SR is automatically created when stateful services are enabled.

D. Edge transport nodes are required for SR to be created.

E. SR can be created from the NSX Advanced Networking and Security tab in the UI.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 11:

An NSX administrator is migrating vSphere port groups configured in vSphere to N-VDS.

What are two migration options? (Choose two.)

A. Migrate vSphere port groups using the esxcli command line.

B. Migrate vSphere port group through the NSX Manager API Calls.

C. Migrate Networking from the vCenter Server.

D. Migrate from the NSX Manager UI, go to Fabric -> Profile -> Uplink Profiles path.

E. Migrate from the NSX Simplified UI> Click Transport Node > Configure NSX > PNIC Only Migration path.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

What is the function of a domain in a NSX-T Data Center?

A. defines the scope of transport zones

B. defines the scope of security policies and groups

C. defines the scope of physical networks

D. defines the scope of transport nodes

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center/2.4.0/rn/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center-240-Release-Notes.html


Question 13:

Which port is used by a transport node to communicate with NSX Manager in NSX-T Data Center 2.4?

A. 5671

B. 1234

C. 1235

D. 5678

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-NSX-T-Data-Center/2.4/nsxt_24_install.pdf


Question 14:

Which three teaming policy modes are supported by NSX-T Data Center? (Choose three.)

A. Destination MAC

B. Failover Order

C. Load Balanced Source

D. Load Balanced Source IP

E. Destination Port

F. Load Balanced Source MAC

Correct Answer: BCF


Question 15:

An NSX administrator wants to create a Tier-0 Gateway to support equal cost multi-path (ECMP) routing. Which failover detection protocol must be used to meet this requirement?

A. Host Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

B. Beacon Probing (BP)

C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)

D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD)

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which is a characteristic of a bad IBM Dynamic Pricing opportunity?

A. Multiple “users” in the pricing process today

B. Competitive data is not available

C. B2C opportunities, especially when they have fast-moving consumer goods

D. The online business is $150M

E. 1000s of SKUs to manage

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What is IBM Commerce Software?

A. IBM\’s solution to understanding every customer, by visualizing customer journeys, replaying online sessions and deriving insights that can be applied across channels.

B. IBM\’s premier solution geared for both online and omni-channel commerce, and omni-channel order orchestration and fulfillment.

C. A powerful digital commerce platform for online and omni-channel commerce, built to deliver personalized and consistent experiences across all customer touchpoints.

D. IBM\’s analytical tool for predicting customer behavior across channels in order to tailor personalized experiences.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which Omni-Channel Commerce offering includes anomaly detection to help companies identify hidden situations that may be impacting their business?

A. Digital Commerce

B. Digital Analytics

C. Customer Insights

D. Commerce Insights

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which is the replacement to IBM Commerce on Cloud – Commerce Service?

A. IBM WebSphere Commerce On Premise

B. IBM Commerce Insights

C. IBM WebSphere Commerce Managed Hosted

D. IBM Order Management

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A client in the B2B space is highly focused on maintaining control of their IT environments and has extensive customizations. Which IBM Commerce Software offering package is MOST appropriate to position to this client?

A. WebSphere Commerce On-Premise Professional Edition

B. WebSphere Commerce On-Premise Enterprise Edition

C. WebSphere Commerce Managed Hosted – Essentials Edition

D. WebSphere Commerce Managed Hosted – Standard Edition

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the primary target persona for IBM Commerce Software?

A. Sales managers for small- to medium-sized businesses, especially when they are lacking in IT tools and support, and are looking for efficient and cost-effective solutions.

B. LOB leaders of medium-sized businesses to large enterprises, especially from marketing, merchandising, sales and customer service.

C. LOB leaders of any-sized businesses, especially from marketing, eCommerce, transportation and logistics and IT.

D. LOB leaders of any-sized businesses, especially when they already use IBM\’s Watson Supply Chain solutions.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which business value statement regarding IBM Watson Commerce Insights capabilities is correct?

A. Delivers a personalized view of data and insights in context of the customer experience, finds hidden opportunities, and takes direct merchandising action based on insights gleaned without switching context or tools.

B. Delivers quick integration with all other Watson Customer Engagements applications, such as Dynamic Pricing and Watson Campaign Automation, under a fully customizable Commerce experience.

C. Integrates all of the available product data and product images into one database that is then easily searchable using Watson Content Hub.

D. Provides a single, personalized view of data and insights, gleamed from automated reporting of internal POS data, performs cognitive pricing actions, and optimizes promotions based on customizable revenue targets.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which target Buyer wants to create personalized and seamless digital customer experiences, while being able to respond to market changes based on insight, thereby improving customer engagement, loyalty and conversion rates?

A. VP of Store Operations

B. VP of Supply Chain

C. Director of Information Technology

D. VP of eCommerce

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which of the following BEST describes the IBM Watson Commerce Insights\’ Assistant feature?

A. Alerts the merchandiser when the inventory is running low on preselected items in the assortment

B. Detects abnormal business conditions, such as revenue impact, along with supporting evidence and recommended actions

C. Compiles all of the frequently used users reports into one dashboard view for easy access

D. Identifies abandoned shopping carts, and can be configured to send a report to the marketer or automatically send a reminder email to the customer

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

What are the core focus industries for IBM Commerce Software?

A. Telecommunications, Electronics, Government and Health

B. Retail, Telecommunications, Electronics, Industrial and Manufacturing

C. Retail, Manufacturing. Energy and Banking

D. Banking, Transportation and Logistics, Industrial and Manufacturing

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

When meeting with the Head of eCommerce for IBM Dynamic Pricing, which prospecting question would be most appropriate to learn how important is their eCommerce channel to their overall brand image?

A. How often do you currently update online prices?

B. Do you have a way to strategically group and price items with low competitive price elasticity?

C. What are your plans for sales or sku growth over the next three years?

D. What steps are you taking to streamline the channel to improve your brand image?

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What are the core and target industries for Omni-Channel Commerce solutions?

A. Banking, Financial Services, Insurance. Travel and Transportation

B. Chemical, Government, Life Sciences

C. Aerospace. Defense, Energy, Mining, Utilities

D. Retail, Telecommunications, Electronics, Industrial and Manufacturing

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

What is the key target market for IBM Dynamic Pricing?

A. Manufacturing companies with many different parts and prices

B. Brick and mortar retailers

C. Healthcare and insurance providers

D. Online retailers

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which three statements are true for IBM Commerce Software: Starter Stores?

A. Starter Stores are available for B2C web store implementation only

B. Starter Stores are available for both B2B and B2C web store implementations

C. Starter Stores do not offer support for unstructured content such as how-to videos and user manuals

D. Start Stores include pre-built widgets to help quickly and build store pages

E. Starter Stores are quick and easy to implement, and eliminate or minimize reliance on IT support

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 15:

When meeting with the Head of eCommerce for IBM Dynamic Pricing, which prospecting question would be most appropriate to establish our solution as a leader in the pricing space?

A. Do you have a way to strategically group and price items with low competitive price elasticity?

B. What is your process for creating a price quote for a complex and configurable product?

C. What steps are you taking to streamline the channel to improve your brand image?

D. What are your plans for sales or sku growth over the next three years?

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Irin is a newly joined penetration tester for XYZ Ltd. While joining, as a part of her training, she was

instructed about various legal policies and information securities acts by her trainer. During the training,

she was informed about a specific information security act related to the conducts and activities like it is

illegal to perform DoS attacks on any websites or applications, it is illegal to supply and own hacking tools,

it is illegal to access unauthorized computer material, etc.

To which type of information security act does the above conducts and activities best suit?

A. Police and Justice Act 2006

B. Data Protection Act 1998

C. USA Patriot Act 2001

D. Human Rights Act 1998

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Adam is an IT administrator for Syncan Ltd. He is designated to perform various IT tasks like setting up new user accounts, managing backup/restores, security authentications and passwords, etc. Whilst performing his tasks, he was asked to employ the latest and most secure authentication protocol to encrypt the passwords of users that are stored in the Microsoft Windows OS-based systems. Which of the following authentication protocols should Adam employ in order to achieve the objective?

A. LANMAN

B. Kerberos

C. NTLM

D. NTLMv2

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Michael, a Licensed Penetration Tester, wants to create an exact replica of an original website, so he can

browse and spend more time analyzing it.

Which of the following tools will Michael use to perform this task?

A. VisualRoute

B. NetInspector

C. BlackWidow

D. Zaproxy

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A hacker initiates so many invalid requests to a cloud network host that the host uses all its resources responding to invalid requests and ignores the legitimate requests. Identify the type of attack

A. Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

B. Side Channel attacks

C. Man-in-the-middle cryptographic attacks

D. Authentication attacks

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Thomas is an attacker and he skimmed through the HTML source code of an online shopping website for the presence of any vulnerabilities that he can exploit. He already knows that when a user makes any selection of items in the online shopping webpage, the selection is typically stored as form field values and sent to the application as an HTTP request (GET or POST) after clicking the Submit button. He also knows that some fields related to the selected items are modifiable by the user (like quantity, color, etc.) and some are not (like price). While skimming through the HTML code, he identified that the price field values of the items are present in the HTML code. He modified the price field values of certain items from $200 to $2 in the HTML code and submitted the request successfully to the application. Identify the type of attack performed by Thomas on the online shopping website?

A. Session poisoning attack

B. Hidden field manipulation attack

C. HTML embedding attack

D. XML external entity attack

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Steven is performing a wireless network audit. As part of the engagement, he is trying to crack a WPAPSK key. Steven has captured enough packets to run aircrack-ng and discover the key, but aircrack-ng did

not yield any result, as there were no authentication packets in the capture.

Which of the following commands should Steven use to generate authentication packets?

A. aireplay-ng –deauth 11 -a AA:BB:CC:DD:EE:FF

B. airmon-ng start eth0

C. airodump-ng –write capture eth0

D. aircrack-ng.exe -a 2 -w capture.cap

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Sam was asked to conduct penetration tests on one of the client\’s internal networks. As part of the testing

process, Sam performed enumeration to gain information about computers belonging to a domain, list of

shares on the individual hosts in the network, policies and passwords.

Identify the enumeration technique.

A. NTP Enumeration

B. NetBIOS Enumeration

C. DNS Enumeration

D. SMTP Enumeration

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Jason is working on a pen testing assignment. He is sending customized ICMP packets to a host in the

target network. However, the ping requests to the target failed with “ICMP Time Exceeded Type = 11” error

messages.

What can Jason do to overcome this error?

A. Set a Fragment Offset

B. Increase the Window size in the packets

C. Increase the TTL value in the packets

D. Increase the ICMP header length

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Joseph, a penetration tester, was hired by Xsecurity Services. Joseph was asked to perform a pen test on

a client\’s network. He was not provided with any information about the client organization except the

company name.

Identify the type of testing Joseph is going to perform for the client organization?

A. White-box Penetration Testing

B. Black-box Penetration Testing

C. Announced Testing

D. Grey-box Penetration Testing

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An organization deployed Microsoft Azure cloud services for running their business activities. They appointed Jamie, a security analyst for performing cloud penetration testing. Microsoft prohibits certain tests to be carried out on their platform. Which of the following penetration testing activities Jamie cannot perform on the Microsoft Azure cloud service?

A. Post scanning

B. Denial-of-Service

C. Log monitoring

D. Load testing

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Richard, a penetration tester was asked to assess a web application. During the assessment, he discovered a file upload field where users can upload their profile pictures. While scanning the page for vulnerabilities, Richard found a file upload exploit on the website. Richard wants to test the web application by uploading a malicious PHP shell, but the web page denied the file upload. Trying to get around the security, Richard added the `jpg\’ extension to the end of the file. The new file name ended with `.php.jpg\’. He then used the Burp suite tool and removed the `jpg\’\’ extension from the request while uploading the file. This enabled him to successfully upload the PHP shell.

Which of the following techniques has Richard implemented to upload the PHP shell?

A. Session stealing

B. Cookie tampering

C. Cross site scripting

D. Parameter tampering

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Richard is working on a web app pen testing assignment for one of his clients. After preliminary

information, gathering and vulnerability scanning Richard runs the SQLMAP tool to extract the database

information.

Which of the following commands will give Richard an output as shown in the screenshot?

A. sqlmap –url http://quennhotel.com/about.aspx?name=1 –D queenhotel –tables

B. sqlmap –url http://quennhotel.com/about.aspx?name=1 –dbs

C. sqlmap –url http://quennhotel.com/about.aspx?name=1 –D queenhotel –T –columns

D. sqlmap –url http://quennhotel.com/about.aspx?name=1 –database queenhotel –tables

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Identify the PRGA from the following screenshot: A. replay_src-0124-161120.cap

B. fragment-0124-161129.xor

C. 0505 933f af2f 740e

D. 0842 0201 000f b5ab cd9d 0014 6c7e 4080

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

An organization has deployed a web application that uses encoding technique before transmitting the data over the Internet. This encoding technique helps the organization to hide the confidential data such as user credentials, email attachments, etc. when in transit. This encoding technique takes 3 bytes of binary data and divides it into four chunks of 6 bits. Each chunk is further encoded into respective printable character. Identify the encoding technique employed by the organization?

A. Unicode encoding

B. Base64 encoding

C. URL encoding

D. HTMS encoding

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

During an internal network audit, you are asked to see if there is any RPC server running on the network and if found, enumerate the associate RPC services. Which port would you scan to determine the RPC server and which command will you use to enumerate the RPC services?

A. Port 111, rpcinfo

B. Port 111, rpcenum

C. Port 145, rpcinfo

D. Port 145, rpcenum

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

When did the initial application of the wireless network begin?

A. During a major war

B. During the Second World War

C. Late 20th century

D. After 2000

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

IEEE is the standard organization responsible for the use of wireless frequencies in the United States.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following standards organizations is implementing WLAN technology interoperability for WLAN device authentication?

A. WiFi Alliance

B. IEEE

C. IETF

D. FCC

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following protocols are IEEE 802.11 standards Select 3 Answers)?

A. 802.11a/b/g/n

B. 802.11i

C. 802.1X

D. 802.11s

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

Which of the following standards is WLAN (Select 2 Answers)?

A. 802.11a/b/g/n

B. WPA

C. WPA2

D. 802.11i

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

The CAPWAP protocol is a WLAN standard proposed by the IEEE standards organization in April 2009 for communication between AC and thin APs.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following protocols support the 2.4 GHz band (Select 3 Answers)?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11g

D. 802.11n

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 8:

How many channels does China support in the 2.4 GHz band?

A. 11

B. 13

C. 3

D. 5

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following options is in the 5GHz band supported by China?

A. 5.15~5.25GHz

B. 5.25~5.35GHz

C. 5.725~5.825GHz

D. 5.725~5.850GHz

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What are the modulation methods (Select 3 Answers) depending on the signal parameters being controlled?

A. amplitude modulation

B. frequency modulation

C. phase modulation

D. modulation

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 11:

Which modulation method does the following picture belong to?

A. amplitude modulation

B. frequency modulation

C. phase modulation

D. modulation

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What is the name of the first radio communication network based on packet technology?

A. INTERNET

B. ARPANet

C. ALOHNET

D. NSFnet

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What are the WLAN operating bands (Select 2 Answers)?

A. 2 GHz

B. 5 GHz

C. 5.4 GHz

D. 2.4 GHz

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

How many channels can the 2.4 GHz band be divided into?

A. 14

B. 13

C. 11

D. 3

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is the US non-overlapping channel in the 2.4 GHz band?

A. 2 , 7, 12

B. 3, 8, 13

C. 1, 6, 11

D. 3, 7, 13

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which prerequisites must be fulfilled before starting the array initialization? (Choose three)

A. HPE Nimble Windows Toolkit installed on a server/laptop.

B. Ensure your laptop/server IP has a static IP address configured on the same subnet as the array management interface.

C. Array updated to the latest firmware.

D. All switch configurations done like flow control and spanning tree.

E. Array registered in InfoSight based on the serial number.

F. HPE Service Processor deployed

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 2:

What is a valid QoS performance setting?

A. latency threshold

B. IOPS minimum

C. IOPS limit

D. MB/s minimum

Correct Answer: C

QoS-Limit allows a user to limit either the IOP or MB/s performance of a specific workload. Having the ability to limit both IOPS and MBs is important as quite often any single workload will have different peaks and troughs during the operational day. For instance, an OLTP workload maybe very latency sensitive to small block updates during the working day when rows and tables are frequently being accessed or updated (this will tend to be very IOP/latency sensitive) yet in the evening the same database maybe receiving feeds from other systems (or providing bulk updates/analysis or index rebuilds), the same application will cease to be IOP sensitive and will now be bandwidth (MBs) sensitive. In NimbleOS4 a user can limit a workload by either IOPS or MBs and also specify limits to both IOPS and MBs. If either limit is reached then the volume will be restricted accordingly.

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/NimbleOS-4-Quality-of-Service-QoS-Limits/ba-p/6986455#.XBEAvMRR2kw


Question 3:

How should the All-Flash shelf be connected to the controller shelf?

A. Cable the All-Flash shelf directly to the last disk shelf.

B. Cable the All-Flash shelf directly to the controller shelf.

C. Use high performance SAS expanders.

D. Cable the All-Flash shelf directly to the first disk shelf.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What is the correct power on/off order of the All Flash-Series? (Choose two.)

A. power off the controller shelf first, then the expansion shelves

B. power on controller shelf first, then the expansion shelves

C. power on expansion shelves first, then the controller shelf

D. power off the expansion shelves first, then the controller shelf

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://www.reddit.com/r/storage/comments/3ii6dt/nimble_array_remote_shutdown_during_power_outage/


Question 5:

Volume pinning is a technology that applies to which series of HPE Nimble arrays?

A. AF-Series

B. CF-Series

C. All series

D. HF-Series

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which statement is true about SSD addition/removal in the HF-Series system? (Choose two.)

A. SSDs cannot be added or removed.

B. SSDs can be added to the existing cache pool.

C. SSDs can be removed from the existing cache pool.

D. SSDs can only be removed if no volumes exist

Correct Answer: BD


Question 7:

Following HPE best practices, when connecting a head unit to an expansion shelf, what port on the expansion shelf should you connect into?

A. P4

B. P1

C. P3

D. P2

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

How do AF-Series arrays perform sequential stripe write operations?

A. hole filling

B. write full stripes

C. write into zone

D. write in place

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

What unique RAID technology did HPE Nimble create?

A. RAID-ADG

B. Network-RAID 10

C. Triple Parity RAID

D. RAID 6

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

When performing a controller upgrade, which component needs to be moved to the new controller?

A. DIMM RAM modules

B. on-board SD card

C. cache batteries

D. on-board USB stick

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which compute cloud services are compatible with HPE Cloud Volumes? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon Web Services

B. IBM Cloud

C. Google Cloud Platform

D. HPE Hybrid Cloud

E. Microsoft Azure

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/storage/cloud-volumes.html


Question 12:

What are the correct AF series read operations?

A. Check DRAM. Check NVDIMM. Retrieve from SSD. Validate checksum, decompress, dedupe, and return data.

B. Check NVDIMM. Retrieve from SSD. Validate checksum, decompress, dedupe, and return data.

C. Check NVDIMM. Check DRAM. Retrieve from SSD. Validate checksum, decompress, dedupe, and return data.

D. Check SSD. Check NVDIMM. Check DRAM. Validate checksum, decompress, dedupe, and return data.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which tools can you use on a Windows host to connect to iSCSI volumes on an HPE Nimble array? (Choose two.)

A. HPE Nimble Connection Wizard

B. Microsoft iSCSI Initiator

C. HPE Nimble Connection Manager

D. HPE Nimble Windows Toolkit

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/HPE-Storage-Tech-Insiders/Nimble-OS-2-0-Part-2-Nimble-Connection-Manager-for-Windows/ba-p/6986545


Question 14:

Which compression algorithm do all HPE Nimble arrays use?

A. PPM

B. bzip2

C. LZ4

D. LZ77

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What is the HPE Nimble grouping of volumes that share snapshot/replication schedules?

A. volume group

B. consistency group

C. volume set

D. volume collection

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A website experiences unpredictable traffic. During peak traffic times, the database is unable to keep up with the write request. Which AWS service will help decouple the web application from the database?

A. Amazon SQS

B. Amazon EFS

C. Amazon S3

D. AWS Lambda

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/sqs/faqs/


Question 2:

A company is launching an application that it expects to be very popular. The company needs a database that can scale with the rest of the application. The schema will change frequently. The application cannot afford any downtime for

database changes.

Which AWS service allows the company to achieve these objectives?

A. Amazon Redshift

B. Amazon DynamoDB

C. Amazon RDS MySQL

D. Amazon Aurora

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A Solution Architect is designing a disaster recovery solution for a 5 TB Amazon Redshift cluster. The recovery site must be at least 500 miles (805 kilometers) from the live site. How should the Architect meet these requirements?

A. Use AWS CloudFormation to deploy the cluster in a second region.

B. Take a snapshot of the cluster and copy it to another Availability Zone.

C. Modify the Redshift cluster to span two regions.

D. Enable cross-region snapshots to a different region.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A customer has written an application that uses Amazon S3 exclusively as a data store. The application works well until the customer increases the rate at which the application is updating information. The customer now reports that outdated data occasionally appears when the application accesses objects in Amazon S3.

What could be the problem, given that the application logic is otherwise correct?

A. The application is reading parts of objects from Amazon S3 using a range header.

B. The application is reading objects from Amazon S3 using parallel object requests.

C. The application is updating records by writing new objects with unique keys.

D. The application is updating records by overwriting existing objects with the same keys.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A mobile application serves scientific articles from individual files in an Amazon S3 bucket. Articles older than 30 days are rarely read. Articles older than 60 days no longer need to be available through the application, but the application owner would like to keep them for historical purposes.

Which cost-effective solution BEST meets these requirements?

A. Create a Lambda function to move files older than 30 days to Amazon EBS and move files older than 60 days to Amazon Glacier.

B. Create a Lambda function to move files older than 30 days to Amazon Glacier and move files older than 60 days to Amazon EBS.

C. Create lifecycle rules to move files older than 30 days to Amazon S3 Standard Infrequent Access and move files older than 60 days to Amazon Glacier.

D. Create lifecycle rules to move files older than 30 days to Amazon Glacier and move files older than 60 days to Amazon S3 Standard Infrequent Access.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

An organization is currently hosting a large amount of frequently accessed data consisting of key-value pairs and semi-structured documents in their data center. They are planning to move this data to AWS. Which of one of the following services MOST effectively meets their needs?

A. Amazon Redshift

B. Amazon RDS

C. Amazon DynamoDB

D. Amazon Aurora

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/aws/amazon-dynamodb-internet-scale-data-storage-the-nosql-way/


Question 7:

A Lambda function must execute a query against an Amazon RDS database in a private subnet.

Which steps are required to allow the Lambda function to access the Amazon RDS database? (Select two.)

A. Create a VPC Endpoint for Amazon RDS.

B. Create the Lambda function within the Amazon RDS VPC.

C. Change the ingress rules of Lambda security group, allowing the Amazon RDS security group.

D. Change the ingress rules of the Amazon RDS security group, allowing the Lambda security group.

E. Add an Internet Gateway (IGW) to the VPC, route the private subnet to the IGW.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

A popular e-commerce application runs on AWS. The application encounters performance issues. The database is unable to handle the amount of queries and load during peak times. The database is running on the RDS Aurora engine on

the largest instance size available.

What should an administrator do to improve performance?

A. Convert the database to Amazon Redshift.

B. Create a CloudFront distribution.

C. Convert the database to use EBS Provisioned IOPS.

D. Create one or more read replicas.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A Solution Architect is designing a three-tier web application. The Architect wants to restrict access to the database tier to accept traffic from the application servers only. However, these application servers are in an Auto Scaling group and may vary in quantity.

How should the Architect configure the database servers to meet the requirements?

A. Configure the database security group to allow database traffic from the application server IP addresses.

B. Configure the database security group to allow database traffic from the application server security group.

C. Configure the database subnet network ACL to deny all inbound non-database traffic from the application-tier subnet.

D. Configure the database subnet network ACL to allow inbound database traffic from the application-tier subnet.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A call center application consists of a three-tier application using Auto Scaling groups to automatically scale resources as needed. Users report that every morning at 9:00 AM the system becomes very slow for about 15 minutes. A Solution Architect determines that a large percentage of the call center staff starts work at 9:00 AM, so Auto Scaling does not have enough time to scale out to meet demand.

How can the Architect fix the problem?

A. Change the Auto Scaling group\’s scale out event to scale based on network utilization.

B. Create an Auto Scaling scheduled action to scale out the necessary resources at 8:30 AM every morning.

C. Use Reserved Instances to ensure the system has reserved the right amount of capacity for the scale-up events.

D. Permanently keep a steady state of instances that is needed at 9:00 AM to guarantee available resources, but leverage Spot Instances.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

An e-commerce application is hosted in AWS. The last time a new product was launched, the application experienced a performance issue due to an enormous spike in traffic. Management decided that capacity must be doubled the week after the product is launched.

Which is the MOST efficient way for management to ensure that capacity requirements are met?

A. Add a Step Scaling policy.

B. Add a Dynamic Scaling policy.

C. Add a Scheduled Scaling action.

D. Add Amazon EC2 Spot Instances.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A customer owns a simple API for their website that receives about 1,000 requests each day and has an average response time of 50 ms. It is currently hosted on one c4.large instance.

Which changes to the architecture will provide high availability at the LOWEST cost?

A. Create an Auto Scaling group with a minimum of one instance and a maximum of two instances, then use an Application Load Balancer to balance the traffic.

B. Recreate the API using Amazon API Gateway and use AWS Lambda as the service backend.

C. Create an Auto Scaling group with a maximum of two instances, then use an Application Load Balancer to balance the traffic.

D. Recreate the API using Amazon API Gateway and integrate the new API with the existing backend service.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A Solution Architect is designing an application that uses Amazon EBS volumes. The volumes must be backed up to a different region. How should the Architect meet this requirement?

A. Create EBS snapshots directly from one region to another.

B. Move the data to an Amazon S3 bucket and enable cross-region replication.

C. Create EBS snapshots and then copy them to the desired region.

D. Use a script to copy data from the current Amazon EBS volume to the destination Amazon EBS volume.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A company is using an Amazon S3 bucket located in us-west-2 to serve videos to their customers. Their customers are located all around the world and the videos are requested a lot during peak hours. Customers in Europe complain about

experiencing slow downloaded speeds, and during peak hours, customers in all locations report experiencing HTTP 500 errors.

What can a Solutions Architect do to address these issues?

A. Place an elastic load balancer in front of the Amazon S3 bucket to distribute the load during peak hours.

B. Cache the web content with Amazon CloudFront and use all Edge locations for content delivery.

C. Replicate the bucket in eu-west-1 and use an Amazon Route 53 failover routing policy to determine which bucket it should serve the request to.

D. Use an Amazon Route 53 weighted routing policy for the CloudFront domain name to distribute the GET request between CloudFront and the Amazon S3 bucket directly.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

A Solutions Architect is designing a solution that includes a managed VPN connection. To monitor whether the VPN connection is up or down, the Architect should use:

A. an external service to ping the VPN endpoint from outside the VPC.

B. AWS CloudTrail to monitor the endpoint.

C. the CloudWatch TunnelState Metric.

D. an AWS Lambda function that parses the VPN connection logs.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/monitoring-cloudwatch-vpn.html


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Question 1:

Which one of the following is the most relevant model for use in Phase C, Application Architecture?

A. The ARTS data model

B. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model

C. The Resource-Event-Agent model

D. The STEP framework

E. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, which of the following is not a business imperative that should be considered?

A. Business requirements

B. Cultural aspirations

C. Forecast financial requirements

D. Strategic Intent

E. Technical elegance

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

Which of the following statements best describes risk management in the ADM?

A. Risk analysis is best conducted in the Architecture Vision phase so that the risk is eliminated in subsequent phases

B. Risk analysis should be carried out first in the Migration Planning phase

C. Risk analysis is outside the scope of enterprise architecture projects

D. Risk is pervasive in all enterprise architecture activity and should be managed in all phases of the ADM

E. The only risks that are within the scope of enterprise architecture are technological risks

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following best describes capability based planning?

A. A business planning technique that focuses on business outcomes

B. A business planning technique that focuses on horizontal capabilities

C. A business planning technique that focuses on vertical capabilities

D. A human resource planning technique that focuses on capable architects

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Gap Analysis is a technique used in Phases B, C, D and E. Which one of the following statements best describes the gap analysis technique?

A. It highlights areas of stakeholder concern

B. It highlights the impacts of change

C. It highlights services that are yet to be developed

D. It highlights services that are available

E. It highlights different viewpoints

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which one of the following describes the practice by which the enterprise architecture is managed and controlled at an enterprise-wide level?

A. Architecture governance

B. Corporate governance

C. IT governance

D. Technology governance

E. Portfolio management

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enter-prise Architecture Capability?

A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap

B. Populate the Architecture Repository

C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum

D. Use the Architecture Development Method E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which one of the following is an essential aspect of architecture governance?

A. Authoring the Architecture Definition Document

B. Ensuring the compliance of individual projects to the enterprise architecture

C. Controlling the implementation and deployment organizations

D. Authoring the Communications Plan for a given architecture project

E. Conducting Business Scenarios

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?

A. To define the capabilities of the organization

B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project

C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change

D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Complete the sentence. In TOGAF, every architecture view has an associated ____ that describes it, at least implicitly.

A. architecture building block

B. architecture model

C. architecture vision

D. requirement

E. viewpoint

Correct Answer: E


Question 11:

Complete the sentence. In TOGAF, legacy systems and processes that are going to be used again in the future are considered ______

A. Architecture Building Blocks

B. Components

C. Patterns

D. Re-usable Building Blocks

E. Solution Building Blocks

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Complete the sentence. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model _____

A. is an example and should be tailored to the needs of an organization

B. must be used “as is” for developing comprehensive architecture models

C. contains several industry specific frameworks

D. is intended to contain the Enterprise Continuum

E. contains only solution building blocks

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?

A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture

B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF

C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF

D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?

A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables

B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them

C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect

D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project

E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not

Correct Answer: E


Question 15:

According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, which category describes a technique that is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?

A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques

B. TOGAF Recommended

C. TOGAF Supporting

D. TOGAF Extension

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

To meet specific requirements for managed systems in four different regions, an organization has customized several values within DLPE Agent Configuration policies. The four different Agent Configuration policies have been applied to objects in the ePO System Tree. Prior to an upgrade the four different Agent Configuration policies can be backed up through which of the following methods?

A. The DLP Policy, File, Save as feature

B. The DLP Policy, File, Export Policy to HTML feature

C. The DLP Policy, File, Synchronize Templates feature

D. The McAfee ePolicy Orchestrator Policy Catalog feature

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What rule prevents unauthorized executables and potential malware from running directly from Removable Storage Devices?

A. Removable Storage Protection Rule

B. Removable Storage File Access Rule

C. Removable Storage Device Rule

D. Removable Storage File Block Rule

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

When detected, which of the following must be categorized with the highest severity?

A. User makes a purchase online with personal credit cards

B. User emails a copy of a spreadsheet with credit card numbers of all customers to personal email to continue work from home

C. User copies a spreadsheet with credit card numbers of all customers to an encrypted device to continue work from home

D. User files an online form and includes their own personally identifiable information

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

How can DLP be used to prohibit users from sending confidential files to partners?

A. Create a partner list definition and add to applicable protection rules

B. Create a partner list and apply to device control C, Use protection rules to stop copying of confidential files

C. Prevent confidential files from being used

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

An employee attempts to copy sensitive data from the Oracle HR database into a Microsoft Word document. To prevent a violation of employee privacy, what actions should the administrator define in the DLPe rule?

A. The paste should be blocked

B. The paste should be monitored, and the employee notified

C. The paste should be encrypted and stored pending further evaluation of the data being copied

D. The file access protection should be blocked and the employee\’s system locked down

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What must be deployed to all target computers before an endpoint policy can be distributed?

A. A Policy Analyzer

B. A DLP global policy

C. The McAfee DLPe extension

D. A supported version of McAfee Agent

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

To remove files from quarantine, which of the following is required?

A. Quarantine release key

B. Restore from quarantine

C. Quarantine purge

D. Agent bypass Code

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which of the following DLP features could be used to target suspicious activity during the first phase of an attack at the hardware layer?

A. Removable Storage device rules

B. Unmanageable device class

C. File system protection rules

D. Network communication protection rules

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Managed McAfee DLPe clients receive the Global Policy through which of the following?

A. Active Directory Group Policy.

B. McAfee Agent ASCI.

C. Shared Folder defined in the local registry.

D. Internal Software Distribution Tool.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following McAfee tools are useful to collect McAfee product data from a computer so that the problem can be analyzed and resolved by McAfee Technical Support?

A. ePO-MVT (McAfee Virtual Technician)

B. Minimum Escalation Requirements (MER) tools

C. McAfee Profiler

D. extra DAT

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

An organization\’s call center uses shared computers for 24×7 operations. Shifts are staffed by employees and contractors. As part of established business processes employees are authorized to use removable storage devices while contractors are prohibited from using these types of devices. To create flexible Removable Storage Device Rules which type of policy assignment can the DLP Endpoint Administrator configure?

A. Computer Assignment Group policy

B. Local Users policy

C. User Assignment Group

D. Privileged Users policy

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

The DLPe Administrator configures a Web Post Protection rule with a blocking reaction. The administrator does not configure a Web Destination definition. What is the result?

A. Uploads containing protected information are blocked for both internal and external websites

B. Uploads containing protected information are blocked only for external websites

C. Uploads containing protected information are blocked only for internal websites

D. None of the uploads containing protected information are blocked

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

The DLP agent status dashboard monitor displays “no data found”. Which server task should be reviewed?

A. DLP incident tasks runner

B. DLP MA properties reporting task

C. DLP policy push task

D. DLP dashboard status task

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

How can incident data be exported?

A. Select specific events in DLP manager to export incident data

B. Run reports or queries to generate specific report and export incident data

C. Use database administration to export incident data

D. Run incident task manager to export incident data

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following proactively helps prevent data loss?

Removable Storage Devices with a file system, when connected to a computer

A. notify the user of potential data loss.

B. send an email to the user\’s manager.

C. generate an incident that is reported to the security team.

D. are blocked.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which disaggregation methods are used for each of these measures: adjusted shipments forecast, target service level, and shipments forecast?

A. Adjusted shipments forecast uses measure, target service level uses same value, and shipments forecast uses self.

B. Adjusted shipments forecast uses proportional, target service level uses same value, and shipments forecast uses measure.

C. Adjusted shipments forecast uses measure, target service level uses same value, and shipments forecast doesn\’t have any disaggregation method.

D. Adjusted shipments forecast uses measure, target service level uses equal, and shipments forecast doesn\’t have any disaggregation method.

E. Adjusted shipments forecast uses equal, target service level uses same value, and shipments forecast uses measure.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Another planner has previously created a supply plan, but you now need to make some changes so that you can do some \’what-if\’ analysis. How can you go about duplicating this plan?

A. You cannot duplicate plans. You must create a completely new supply plan.

B. Manage Plans > Search and select supply plan > Actions > Duplicate.

C. Run process “Duplicate supply plans” with existing plan as parameter.

D. Manage Plans > Search and select supply plan > Actions > Edit Plan Options > Select Copy.

E. You cannot duplicate a plan that is not owned by you.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/supply-chain-management/r13-update18a/faupc/manage-supply-plans.html#FAUPC2387447_2


Question 3:

Should value in Adjusted Shipments Forecast measure always be equal to the Final Shipments Forecast measure?

A. Yes, if the adjustment is made below the aggregation level at which it is viewed.

B. Yes,if the adjustment is made at the same aggregation level at which itis viewed, or below.

C. No, both measures will always be different.

D. Yes,if the demand plan is approved and values are locked.

E. Yes,if the demand plan hasn\’t been run again after adjustment.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You have run a plan for your organization and there were sales orders that have been set up for drop shipment that you cannot see in the plan.

Which two options explain why the sales orders cannot be seen in the plan? (Choose two.)

A. Drop Ship Item Validation Org has not been set up.

B. Drop Ship Demand Class has not be set up.

C. Supplier not configured in Manage Planning Source Systems

D. Include drop ship demands and supplies flag has not been checked on your plan options.

E. Planning Profile \’Enable Planning for Drop Shipments\’ has not been set to \’Yes\’.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

When analyzing demand fulfillment, what are the three types of recommendations that users can review and accept for expediting? (Choose three.)

A. Expedite transfer orders

B. Expedite make orders

C. Expedite buy orders

D. Expedite drop ship orders

E. Expedite make to stock orders

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/supply-chain-management/r13-update18a/faupc/manage-supply-plans.html#FAUPC2101877


Question 6:

Which is the proper fulfillment strategy to plan for supply using the appropriate lead times required for processing material at a third party, based on the manufacturing work definition?

A. outside processing operations

B. expense destination transfers

C. contract manufacturing

D. back-to-back orders

E. drop shipments

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:aja8e_MRdlUJ:https://cloudcustomerconnect.oracle.com/files/e034e398c1/r13-scm-sc-planning-nfs.pdf andcd=3andhl=enandct=clnkandgl=pkandclient=opera (page 23)


Question 7:

Your current shipments forecast for Jan 2018 is 1000 and the demand planner determines that the forecast should be 1500. Describe how the demand planner can override shipments forecast. Also, what happens to the final shipments forecast measure when the demand plan is run again and the shipments forecast value changes to 1250?

A. Open a table with the Adjusted Shipments Forecast measure and enter 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure will change to 1500 and the value will persist during subsequent demand plan runs.

B. Open a table with the Shipments Forecast measure and override it to 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure will change to 1500 and the value will persist during subsequent demand plan runs.

C. Open a table with the Shipments Forecast measure and override it to 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure will change to 1500. During the subsequent demand plan run, the Final Shipments Forecast value will change to 1250.

D. Open a table with the Adjusted Shipments Forecast measure and enter 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure will change to 1500. During the subsequent demand plan run, the Final Shipments Forecast value will change to 1250.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which KPIs are available to measure forecasting accuracy and specify how these measures aggregated from item-organization level to higher levels.

A. MAPE, MAD, and Bias are used to measure forecast accuracy. MAD and Bias are aggregated using sum. MAPE is aggregated using weighted average.

B. MAPE, MAD, and Bias are used to measure forecast accuracy. MAPE and Bias are aggregated using weighted average. MAD is aggregated using sum.

C. MAPE, MFE, and Bias are used to measure forecast accuracy. MAPE and Bias are aggregated using weighted average. MFE is aggregated using sum.

D. MAPE, MFE, and Bias are used to measure forecast accuracy. MAPE and MFE are aggregated using weighted average. Bias is aggregated using sum.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which three options represent predefined hierarchies in Planning Central? (Choose three.)

A. Business unit

B. Demand Class

C. Resource

D. Exception Type

E. Pricing

F. Sales Channel

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 10:

What happens when a demand planner approves a demand plan and then adjusts shipment history and runs demand plan again?

A. The approve action takes the data from the two final forecast measures and copies to Approved Final Shipments Forecast and Approved Final Bookings Forecast, respectively. After a forecast is approved, the approved values remain unchanged until the forecast is approved again.

B. The approve action makes the Adjusted Shipments Forecast and Adjusted Bookings Forecast measures “not editable.” After a forecast is approved, the Final Shipments Forecast and Final Bookings Forecast measures remain unchanged until the forecast is approved again.

C. The approve action makes the Adjusted Shipments Forecast and Adjusted Bookings Forecast measures “not editable.” But any subsequent demand plan run can change Final Shipments Forecast and Final Bookings Forecast values.

D. The approve action takes the data from the two final forecast measures and copies to Approved Final Shipments Forecast and Approved Final Bookings Forecast, respectively. Any subsequent demand plan run can change final shipments or bookings forecast values that will automatically update the approved forecast measures.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Your client has a requirement to restrict Supply Plan data access. Identify three Data Access Set detail entities that can be used to restrict plan data access. (Choose three.)

A. Supplier

B. Item

C. Transaction Type

D. Customer

E. Material Planner

F. Demand Class

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

How can you deliver a forecast for drop shipments?

A. It cannot be done at this time.

B. Generate manually using Planning Analytics

C. Excel upload using File Based Data Import Process

D. Create based on the supplier performance for drop shipment collection

E. Create based on the drop shipment or booking history; the ship from will be the drop ship validation organization

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/supply-chain-management/r13-update18a/faupc/manage-supply-network-model.html#FAUPC2085579


Question 13:

In which situation would Bills of Distribution be more effective than Sourcing Rules?

A. When Organization A, Organization B, and Organization C make their own products

B. When Organization A buys from a Supplier; Organization B transfers from Organization A, and Organization C transfers from Organization B

C. When all organizations transfer 50% of the material from Organization B, and 50% from Organization C

D. When all organizations are buying from a single outside supplier

E. When Organization A, Organization B, and Organization C transfer from Organization C

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A60725_05/html/comnls/us/mrp/srbod.htm


Question 14:

In order for Supply and Demand Plans to run successfully, which three Configure Planning Analytic tasks must be completed? (Choose three.)

A. Set up Levels and Attributes

B. Set up Measure Catalogs

C. Run the Configure Dimension Catalog process

D. Set up Default Catalogs

E. Set up Dimension Catalogs

F. Set up Hierarchy Attributes

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel12/scmcs_gs/FAUPC/FAUPC2137483.htm#FAUPC2137483


Question 15:

Which three statements are true regarding exceptions? (Choose three.)

A. The conditions under which exceptions are generated can be modified.

B. You can act on an exception by selecting it and clicking \’Resolve exception\’. A list of ways to resolve will be generated.

C. The calculation logic for exceptions can be modified.

D. You can drill down into Supplies and Demand from an exception line.

E. You can export exception tables to Excel.

F. You can create custom exceptions.

Correct Answer: ACE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/supply-chain-management/r13-update18a/faupc/manage-exceptions.html#FAUPC2207850