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Question 1:

Failure to designate at least one date or date/time field as segment will cause which of the following to occur during a search operation?

A. end-users will not be able tosearch using a date field

B. all database tables belonging to that Application Group will be searched, potentially causing poor performance

C. end-users will receive a warning message ( field has not been identified as a database segment field)

D. the document indexes will never expire when arsmaint is run

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

An OnDemand application is being created to load very large reports (1000 pages each). In order to provide better usability and retrieval performance, what option should be selected on the Load Information tab?

A. disable data compression

B. change the Compressed Object Size to at least the size of the largest report

C. specify Large Object

D. choose the appropriate Data Compression option only after testing sample reports forthe best compression factor

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the following is used to limit the number of documents displayed in the document list?

A. maximum hits

B. named query

C. query restriction

D. none of the above

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

In the OnDemand client, the wildcardcharacters (single/zero or more) are:

A. ?/* (question mark and asterisk)

B. ./# (period and pound sign)

C. depends on the database serve

D. _/% (underscore and percent sign)

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which of the following is required to provide Java servletsupport for the OnDemand Web Enablement Kit?

A. any HTTP server

B. Java-enabled HTTP server

C. Java-enabled HTTP server with Java application server

D. Java application server with SSL support

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which OnDemand user type is permitted to maintain storage sets and printers?

A. User

B. User Administrator

C. Application Group/Folder/Cabinet Administrator

D. Hold Administrator

E. System Administrator

F. Any user type, assuming authority has been granted to do so

Correct Answer: E


Question 7:

Which ofthe following is NOT a function of the OnDemand library server?

A. user authentication

B. logging

C. searching

D. data loading

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

An OnDemand __________ maintains data for a certain length of time on certaintype(s) of media.

A. application

B. application group

C. cabinet

D. folder

E. storage set

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

An Application Group was created with Create Tablespace Type setto None. After loading many months of data to the Application Group, the administrator decides to move the data from the default Tablespace to an SMS (System Managed Space) tablespace.

Which OnDemand command line utility program would be used to do this?

A. arsdb

B. arsadmin

C. arstblsp

D. arsmaint

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

What is the earliest calendar date that can beused with the OnDemand arsdate command line utility?

A. January 1, 2000

B. January 1, 1970

C. January 1, 1950

D. January 1, 1900

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

A company wants to purchase and implement OnDemand to archive customer billing statements. Due to the amount of data to be archived, they want to use Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) to store all statements older than one year on cartridge tape. The company doesn plan to implementwant to use Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) to store all statements older thanone year on cartridge tape. The company doesn\’t plan to implement TSM until next year and is asking questions about the logic of their plan.

What is your response?

A. OnDemand and TSM must be installed at the same time to accomplish their goal.

B. OnDemand can be installed now and TSM can be added at any time in the future with no special considerations.

C. OnDemand can be installed now and TSM can be added at any time in the future as long as any storage sets are created with this in mind.

D. OnDemand canbe installed now and TSM can be added at any time in the future, but any data archived before TSM is installed will have to be reloaded.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

In the OnDemand client, the Notes window allows the user to perform the following actions(assuming the proper user permissions exist) EXCEPT:

A. add a note

B. copy a note

C. delete note(s)

D. edit a note

E. find a note

F. print note(s)

G. sort notes

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

An SSN (Social SecurityNumber) is a common database field for many applications, but the format of the SSN on different documents can vary. For example, one document uses a 9 digit SSN without dashes or spaces (xxxxxxxxx), another includes spaces (xxx xx xxxx), and a third includes dashes (xxx-xx-xxxx).

Which one of the following methods is used to store the SSN from all applications in a single format?

A. Specify a default format option for the SSN field in each application

B. Remove embedded dash and space characters from theSSN field in each application

C. Remove embedded dash and space characters from the SSN field in the application group

D. Use the MASK option in the FIELD index parameter statement to ignore dashes and spaces in the SSN field

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

For a single OnDemand instance, which configuration is not valid?

A. Library server, 2 object servers on 3 different machines

B. Library/object server on 1 machine, second object server on a different machine

C. Library/object serveron 1 machine, second library server on a different machine

D. Library/object server on 1 machine, 10 object servers on 10 other machines

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which of the following rules will retain FIELD1 with the longest last name and TITLEequals to “MR”?

A. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c.”LASTNAME”))<= SIZEOF(TRIM(b."LASTNAME")) AND

B. TITLE=”MR”

C. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c.”LASTNAME”))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(c.”LASTNAME”)) AND

D. TITLE=”MR”

E. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c.”LASTNAME”))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b.”LASTNAME”)) ANDb.TITLE=”MR”

F. FIELD1: SIZEOF(TRIM(c.”LASTNAME”))>= SIZEOF(TRIM(b.”LASTNAME”)) AND

G. TITLE=”MR”

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What is DataStage/Quality Stage Administrator client used for?

A. Setting up project properties.

B. Scheduling jobs to execute.

C. Compiling all the jobs at once.

D. Exporting log messages for a job.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

What does character discrete investigation examine?

A. Single domain fields.

B. Multiple domain fields.

C. Both single domain and multipledomain fields.

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which one of the following is NOT a survive technique?

A. Probability based rule

B. Most Frequent

C. Longest Field

D. Most Recent

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of thefollowing should be avoided regarding the use of Match Improvement Strategy?

A. Use only one Match Pass.

B. Set critical values for important fields.

C. Add additional passes.

D. Adjust weights using weight overrides.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What does the informational content of a QualityStage Match phase measure?

A. The severity of false positives and false negatives.

B. The significance of discriminating value and frequency.

C. The degree of importance of a particular data field.

D. The confidence of a match.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What does the QualityStage Standardization Rule Set contain?

A. Information on how to perform calculation with the data.

B. Logic for parsing, classifying, and pattern processing the data.

C. Rulesfor eliminating columns of data.

D. Rules on which records to keep.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of Match Blocking?

A. Blocking fields are grouped using the primary key\’s hash value.

B. Each Block has 1000 records.

C. Every record in the block becomes an automatic residual.

D. Blocking fields must match exactly for a candidate set to be created/evaluated.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which of the following is a good description of data quality?

A. What are the sources of the data.

B. How many volumes of data there are.

C. How reliable is the accuracy of the data.

D. How many variations of the data there are.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which of the followingstatements is TRUE?

A. Word Investigate uses Standardization Rule Set.

B. Word Investigate uses Survive Rule Set.

C. Word Investigate uses both Standardization and Survive Rule Sets.

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which of the following Rule Set organizes and moves user data to the correct domains?

A. Country Identifier

B. Domain Pre-processor

C. State Pre-processor

D. Domain Specific

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

The Ethernet switch working in store and forward mode drops the frame with length smaller than 64 bytes.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

VXLAN uses MAC in UDP encapsulation to extend Layer 2 networks and encapsulates Ethernet packets on IP packets. When packets are transmitted on a touted network, the intermediate touting device does not need to learn inner MAC addresses.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following statements about layer 2 LAN switch are incorrect?

A. LAN switch will modify the data link layer header of the packet and then forward it.

B. LAN switch can learn Mac address automatically.

C. LAN switch operates at data link layer.

D. LAN switch will modify the network layer header of the packet and then forward it.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Is the following statement correct or incorrect? Because a bypass tunnel Is manually created during TE FRR configuration, the constraint shortest path first (CSPF) does not need to be enabled.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following statements is correct regarding virtual router?

A. If multiple routers are configured with the same virtual router ID.they all associate to the same virtual router.

B. If multiple routers associate to the same virtual router, they must be configured with the same virtual router ID and at feast one virtual IP address.

C. If multiple routers associate to the same virtual router, they must be configured with the same virtual router ID and virtual IP address.

D. If multiple routers are configured with the same virtual IP address, they all associate to the same virtual

router.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

The VRRP advertfse-lnterval is 2s, preempt mode is enabled, Delay Time is 3s, then which of the following is the Master_Down_Interval time?

A. 2s

B. 4s

C. 9s

D. 6s

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Both TE FRR and VPN FRR are used to protect tunnels, and therefore they can replace each other.

B. After VPN FRR is deployed, the end-to-end service convergence time is shorter than 1 second.

C. TE FRR Implements quick traffic switchovers if a PE becomes faulty.

D. VPN FRR implements quick traffic switchovers if a PE becomes faulty.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which of the following statement are correct regarding TTL value in VRRP packet?

A. The VRRP packet is only forwarded in one IP network, so the TTL value is always set to 1.

B. The TTL value of device from different manufactures is different; on VRP, the TTL value is 1.

C. By default, the VRRP packet with TTL value not equal to 255 will be dropped; On VRP, we can use some commands to disable the function of delecting TTL value.

D. The TTL value must be 255 In normal VRRP packet.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following operations need to be complete before IP FRR configuration?

A. Configure different costs to generate two routes with different costs.

B. Configure the same cost to generate two equal-cost routes.

C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on the entire network to Implement IP connectivity between nodes.

D. Configure static routes or an IGP to implement IP connectivity between nodes.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

PIM-SM relies on particular unicast routing protocol for RPF check.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following statements regarding multicast MAC address is correct?

A. The first six hexadecimal value of the multicast Mac address is 0x01005e.

B. Multicast MAC address is composed of 23 bits.

C. The range of multicast MAC address is assigned by IEEE.

D. On Ethernet, 28-bits of layer 3 multicast IP address are mapped into the 24-bits of the layer 2 multicast MAC address.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

The IGMP snooping configuration is as follows:

# vlan batch 3 # igmp-snooping enable # vlan 3 igmp-snooping enable # interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1 port hybrid tagged vlan 3 I2-multicast static-group group-address 225.1.1.1 to 225.1.1.3 vlan 3 # interface GigabitEthernet3/0/1 port hybrid tagged vlan 3 igmp-snooplng static-router-port vlan 3

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The device connected to GE 1/0/1 can receive multicast traffic only for the multicast groups 225.1.1.1 to 225.1.1.3. because static multicast groups are configured on GE 1/0/1.

B. The device connected to GE 1/0/1 can send Report messages to receive multicast data \’or multicast groups outside the 225.1.1.1 to 225.1-1.3 range.

C. IGMP snooping has been enabled on the switch.

D. The device connected to GE 3/0/1 Is a multicast router.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which of the following statements regarding IP address 224.0.0.1 are correct?

A. It represents all the hosts and routers.

B. It represents all the routers.

C. It is a private IP address.

D. It is a multicast IP address.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

The PPPoE Session Stage is a complete PPP procedure.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

The Session ID of PPPoE could be changed during the whole Session Stage.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

The Ethernet switch working in store and forward mode drops the frame with length smaller than 64 bytes.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

VXLAN uses MAC in UDP encapsulation to extend Layer 2 networks and encapsulates Ethernet packets on IP packets. When packets are transmitted on a touted network, the intermediate touting device does not need to learn inner MAC addresses.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following statements about LAN switch is correct?

A. LAN switch is transparent for user, it does not modify the data field of the forwarded frame.

B. LAN switch can still operate normally even when loop exists.

C. LAN switch can detect loop according to the contents of the packet.

D. LAN switch can modify the data field of the forwarded frame when necessary.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which of the following statements about layer 2 LAN switch are incorrect?

A. LAN switch will modify the data link layer header of the packet and then forward it.

B. LAN switch can learn Mac address automatically.

C. LAN switch operates at data link layer.

D. LAN switch will modify the network layer header of the packet and then forward it.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Is the following statement correct or incorrect? Because a bypass tunnel Is manually created during TE FRR configuration, the constraint shortest path first (CSPF) does not need to be enabled.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which of the following statements is correct regarding virtual router?

A. If multiple routers are configured with the same virtual router ID.they all associate to the same virtual router.

B. If multiple routers associate to the same virtual router, they must be configured with the same virtual router ID and at feast one virtual IP address.

C. If multiple routers associate to the same virtual router, they must be configured with the same virtual router ID and virtual IP address.

D. If multiple routers are configured with the same virtual IP address, they all associate to the same virtual

router.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

PIM-SM relies on particular unicast routing protocol for RPF check.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which of the following statements regarding multicast MAC address is correct?

A. The first six hexadecimal value of the multicast Mac address is 0x01005e.

B. Multicast MAC address is composed of 23 bits.

C. The range of multicast MAC address is assigned by IEEE.

D. On Ethernet, 28-bits of layer 3 multicast IP address are mapped into the 24-bits of the layer 2 multicast MAC address.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

The IGMP snooping configuration is as follows:

# vlan batch 3 # igmp-snooping enable # vlan 3 igmp-snooping enable # interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1 port hybrid tagged vlan 3 I2-multicast static-group group-address 225.1.1.1 to 225.1.1.3 vlan 3 # interface GigabitEthernet3/0/1 port hybrid tagged vlan 3 igmp-snooplng static-router-port vlan 3

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The device connected to GE 1/0/1 can receive multicast traffic only for the multicast groups 225.1.1.1 to 225.1.1.3. because static multicast groups are configured on GE 1/0/1.

B. The device connected to GE 1/0/1 can send Report messages to receive multicast data \’or multicast groups outside the 225.1.1.1 to 225.1-1.3 range.

C. IGMP snooping has been enabled on the switch.

D. The device connected to GE 3/0/1 Is a multicast router.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following statements regarding IP address 224.0.0.1 are correct?

A. It represents all the hosts and routers.

B. It represents all the routers.

C. It is a private IP address.

D. It is a multicast IP address.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

The PPPoE Session Stage is a complete PPP procedure.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

After the server receives the PADR sent by the client, which message will be sent as the response and to identify the connection?

A. PADS

B. PADR

C. PADO

D. PADT

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which of the following are two important working stages in PPPoE protocol?

A. Session Stage

B. NCP

C. LCP

D. Discovery Stage

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

Administrators can change the priorities of default zones in the firewall as required.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

When configuring Diff-Serv in QoS, the edge router on Diff-Serv network classify packets according to its source address, destination address or other parameters, assigning different IP precedence for different packets, while other routers classify packets according to IP precedence.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of Critical Fields?

A. Critical Fields are used to identify fields that must agree in order for records to be linked.

B. Critical Fields do not have to match exactly.

C. Only critical fields of a record are used to calculate the composite weights of the record.

D. Critical Fields are fields with missing values.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

What is DataStage/QualityStage Director client used for?

A. Publishing and managing shared information services.

B. Clearing log messages of a job.

C. Compiling and executing a job.

D. Enabling run time column propagation for parallel jobs.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which one of the following is NOT a survive technique?

A. Probability based rule

B. Most Frequent

C. Longest Field

D. Most Recent

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

If data value AEJPA 5342G is investigated using an all-C mask, what would the result look like?

A. AEJPA G

B. CCCCBCCCCC

C. AEJPA 5342G

D. AEJPA XXXXG

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which of the following isWeight Override used to add or replace?

A. Agreement weight

B. Disagreement weight

C. Calculated weight

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of Survive Rules?

A. Survive Rules contains one or more targets.

B. If any survive rule could not select a record, the firstrecord is selected as the best record.

C. If any survive rule could not select a record, the last record is selected as the best record.

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

When using QualityStage Match Stage, blocking strategy is used for ______________

A. grouping “like” records of high probability of match and comparing these records against all residual records.

B. eliminating records that do not have data value in the blocking fields from further matching.

C. grouping “like”records of high probability of match and comparing these records against records in other “blocks”.

D. grouping “like” records of high probability of match and comparing these records against each other.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Significance of discriminating value and frequency can both be calculated from your data.

B. Significance of discriminating value and information content are related.

C. Significance of discriminating value and frequency arerelated.

D. All of the above.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which of the following Rule Set organizes and moves user data to the correct domains?

A. Country Identifier

B. Domain Pre-processor

C. State Pre-processor

D. Domain Specific

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Character Concatenate Investigate uses Standardization Rule Set.

B. Character Concatenate Investigate uses Survive Rule Set.

C. Character Concatenate Investigate uses both Standardization and Survive Rule Sets.

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

If data value 46A X32 is investigated using an all-T mask, what would the result look like?

A. nncbcnn

B. nnabann

C. nnxxxnn

D. nnc-cnn

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What is DataStage/Quality Stage Designer client used for?

A. Viewing log messages of a job.

B. Compiling and executing a job.

C. Setting up the user\’s permissions.

D. Displaying the status ofa job.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Failure to designate at least one date or date/time field as segment will cause which of the following to occur during a search operation?

A. end-users will not be able tosearch using a date field

B. all database tables belonging to that Application Group will be searched, potentially causing poor performance

C. end-users will receive a warning message ( field has not been identified as a database segment field)

D. the document indexes will never expire when arsmaint is run

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A report that has been archived into OnDemand suddenly fails to load. The OnDemand system administrator investigates and determines that the format of the report has changed. What action should be taken?

A. modify the view information in the application

B. modify the indexer parameters in the application

C. modify the load information in the application

D. modify the field information in the application group

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which OnDemand command line utility program is used to unload data?

A. arsload

B. arsmaint

C. arsadmin

D. arsdb

E. none of the above

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which OnDemand user type is permitted to maintain storage sets and printers?

A. User

B. User Administrator

C. Application Group/Folder/Cabinet Administrator

D. Hold Administrator

E. System Administrator

F. Any user type, assuming authority has been granted to do so

Correct Answer: E


Question 5:

Which ofthe following is NOT a function of the OnDemand library server?

A. user authentication

B. logging

C. searching

D. data loading

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Company policy requires thatapplication development and testing be isolated from production systems. With respect to OnDemand, which of the following options best satisfies this policy?

A. Use separate application groups, applications, folders and user accounts for development and testing

B. Install another copy of OnDemand on a different server for development and testing

C. Create a second object server for development and testing

D. Create a second OnDemand instance for development and testing

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

An OnDemand __________ maintains data for a certain length of time on certaintype(s) of media.

A. application

B. application group

C. cabinet

D. folder

E. storage set

Correct Answer: E


Question 8:

An SSN (Social SecurityNumber) is a common database field for many applications, but the format of the SSN on different documents can vary. For example, one document uses a 9 digit SSN without dashes or spaces (xxxxxxxxx), another includes spaces (xxx xx xxxx), and a third includes dashes (xxx-xx-xxxx).

Which one of the following methods is used to store the SSN from all applications in a single format?

A. Specify a default format option for the SSN field in each application

B. Remove embedded dash and space characters from theSSN field in each application

C. Remove embedded dash and space characters from the SSN field in the application group

D. Use the MASK option in the FIELD index parameter statement to ignore dashes and spaces in the SSN field

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

What is one of the EMM offerings called that allows the customer to understand and prospect behavior across all online channels?

A. Transformation analytics

B. Open media performance

C. Channel performance

D. Web and digital analytics

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://measure.coremetrics.com/corem/getform/reg/wp-driving-value-from-your- multichannel-data


Question 2:

What fundamental change is marketing going through with respect to an EMM product solution?

A. Shared media convergence influences old distribution channels.

B. Internet no longer applies to how consumersbuy.

C. Old distribution channels challenges are re-appearing.

D. Internet continues to transform how consumers buy.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is one ofthe business problems that the Unica PredictiveInsight EMM product addresses?

A. Displaying, in real time, the right message to present in inbound marketing channels.

B. Building better customer relationships through more relevant interactions based ondata mining and predictive modeling.

C. Displaying to the user all the connections in their enterprise systems.

D. Reaching customers that are remotely connected to the Internet.

Correct Answer: B

Reference:http://www.unica.com/products/predictive-analytics.htms


Question 4:

What will increase the volume of campaigns by 30x?

A. Media awareness

B. Serialization

C. Automation

D. Transformation

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which of these business problems is one that an IBM EMM product solves?

A. Database through-put

B. Staffing requirements

C. Event detection

D. Sales forecasting

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Who are the influencers for using the Coremetrics EMM product?

A. Practitioners

B. Managers

C. Executives

D. Board of Directors

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is the main objective of the EMM solution for IBM customers?

A. Power the success of every marketing organization with innovative technology solutions.

B. Entertain new business prospects by adapting legacy systems.

C. Increase content flow between IBM products allowing the customer to make IBM product purchase decisions.

D. Decentralization of content in the marketplace.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is one of the main steps in the progression of the Coremetrics life cycle?

A. Advance customers

B. Deliver products

C. Build reporting structure

D. Create customer confidence

Correct Answer: A

Reference:http://www.coremetrics.com/solutions/customer-lifecycle-conversion.php


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Question 1:

How is the Coremetrics Software as a Service (SaaS) product used in IBM\’s EMM productlineup?

A. It is used as a deployment model to optimize online marketing.

B. It is used as a recovery mode to recover from online disasters.

C. It is used as a replication server to replicate marketing information.

D. It is used as a tracking product for tracking customer transactions.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.informationweek.com/news/software/bi/231002187


Question 2:

What is the value proposition of the Unica Leads product offering?

A. To deliver quality leads in a timely manner.

B. Tocreate new market channels through leads generation.

C. To offer new product offerings through channel marketing.

D. To sustain existing channels through demand generation.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.unica.com/products/lead-managment.htm


Question 3:

What is one of the main competitors for IBM\’s EMM offerings in the marketplace?

A. Teradata

B. IndustryTrends

C. OpenAnalytics

D. NetTrends

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://crmsearch.com/aprimo-teradata.php


Question 4:

What is the value proposition of the Unica Detect product offering?

A. To build valuable, trustedrelationships.

B. To determine the right message to present in inbound marketing channels.

C. To deliver quality leads in a timely manner.

D. To improve cross-sell and retention rates by detecting when customers are most receptive to offers.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://www.unica.com/products/event-based-marketing.htm


Question 5:

What is one of the EMM offerings called that allows the customer to understand and prospect behavior across all online channels?

A. Transformation analytics

B. Open media performance

C. Channel performance

D. Web and digital analytics

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://measure.coremetrics.com/corem/getform/reg/wp-driving-value-from-your- multichannel-data


Question 6:

What is one of the forces that is shaping howcompanies approach marketing with the EMM product solution?

A. General ads increase revenue.

B. Targeted ads increase revenue.

C. Decrease in on-line conversions is increasing new marketing channels.

D. Decrease in marketing capacity is increasing newmarketing channels.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

How does Coremetrics interact with other products?

A. Coremetrics does not interact with other products.

B. Coremetrics uses IBM middleware SaaS products to interact with other products.

C. Coremetrics is a software service and can be called by other products.

D. Coremetrics supports communication with other products using a shared data source.

Correct Answer: C

Reference:

http://publib.boulder.ibm.com/infocenter/wchelp/v7r0m0/index.jsp?topic=/com.ibm.com merce.admin.doc/concepts/cwnwebanalytics.htm


Question 8:

How is the IBM product ILOG used in the EMM solution?

A. It can be used as part of the selling phase of the EMM solution.

B. It can be used as part of the marketing phase of the EMM solution.

C. It can be used as part of the initial phase of the EMM solution.

D. It can be used as part of the fulfillment phase of the EMM solution.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is one of the target project areas for the executive in theCoremetrics Financial Services customer profile?

A. Improved process orientation

B. Improved security

C. Improved process visibility

D. Improved top-line performance

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.slideshare.net/parature/metrics-that-wow-how-coremetrics-became- the-customer-service-model-of-success


Question 10:

What will increase the volume of campaigns by 30x?

A. Media awareness

B. Serialization

C. Automation

D. Transformation

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What percentage of the market use Web analytics?

A. Over 90%

B. Over 75%

C. Under 40%

D. Under 60%

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

In order to ensure the reliable operation of the company\’s business, the construction of cloud data center, which aspects security design need to consider? (Multiple choice)

A. ACL

B. Firewall

C. Rights management

D. Anti-virus

Correct Answer: ABCD

In the cloud operation and maintenance management, the main security threats, which


Question 2:

What are the following included that Virtualization technologies are categorized by application scenario? (Multiple choice)

A. Full virtualization

B. Server virtualization

C. Desktop Virtualization

D. Paravirtualization

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

Huawei establishes a three-dimensional information security system for cloud computing from various aspects, such as the access client, access network, virtual platform, management.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

In Huawei FusionSphere solutions, about the description of the virtual machine complete migration, which is correct?

A. Support VM migrations on virtualized and non-virtualized storage

B. Only support virtualized inter-store migration

C. You can not migrate across clusters

D. The graphics processor, USB devices have little effect on the migration

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following are the deployment modes of Cloud platform? (Multiple choice)

A. Desktop cloud

B. Public cloud

C. Private cloud

D. Hybrid cloud

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 6:

Which of the description about the FusionSphere OpenStack Neutron module is correct? (Multiple choice)

A. The neutron-server receives REST requests, authenticates keystones, interacts with the database, provides APIs for network objects and is deployed on the control node in A-A deployments.

B. neutron-openswitch-agent configuration openswitch flow table, providing a two-tier forwarding path; deployed in computing nodes.

C. neutron-vc-vswitch-agent docking VMWare, Neutron network model will be converted into VMWare network model to form a unified virtual network; proposed deployment in the control node.

D. neutron-metadata-agent for the virtual machine to access the metadata service to provide network channels; deployed in the network node.

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 7:

When virtual machine network is obstructed on FusionCompute, which of the following is a possible fault point? (Multiple choice)

A. the PV driver is not installed on the virtual machine

B. The virtual machine does not have a network card

C. The network card is not enabled

D. Virtual machine firewalls Limit network traffic

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 8:

What are the basic resource objects for Neutron components in Huawei FusionSphere OpenStack?

A. Security Group

B. Network

C. Subnet

D. Port

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 9:

What does the disaster recovery solutions of Huawei\’s cloud data center solutions contain?

A. Master and backup disaster

B. Double active capacity disaster

C. Two Places, three centers

D. Integrated disaster recovery

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 10:

Which of the following steps are involved in the migration process for Huawei FusionSphere services?

A. Migration assessment

B. Program design

C. Migration implementation

D. Migration and acceptance

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 11:

Huawei ManageOne OperationCenter is the data center unified monitoring and management platform. Which of the following are the correct descriptions of the OperationCenter? (Multiple Choice)

A. When the management is FusionCompute of Huawei, FusionManager collects the object information, alarm information, capacity information of virtualization environment on the FusionCompute, and report to OperationCentere.

B. When the management is Huawei FusionSphere OpenStack, FusionManager collects the the alarm of virtualization environment on the FusionSphere OpenStack and report to OperationCentere.

C. When the management is VMware virtualized environment, the object information is collected by the VMware vCenter and escalated to the OperationsCenter through the FusionManager.

D. When the management is the physical equipment, use FusionManager as a monitoring management software, the FusionManager will report the physical equipment object, performance, alarm, event information to OperationCentere.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

Under the scenarios of Huawei FusionAccess application virtualization, which of the following way can the client through to get to the application list?

A. HDC returns to the application list according to the MAC address of the client

B. HDC returns to the application list according to the IP address of the client

C. HDC returns to the application list according to the client\’s user name D. HDC returns to the application list according to the user\’s user group name

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

In FusionSphere solutions, VSA ManageDVS network is in the plane of the network with management can not be exchanged.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which of the following network plane divisions and use does the FusionSphere cloud datacenter scenario involve? (Multiple choice)

A. Tunnel_Bearing

B. Internal_Base

C. External_OM

D. External_API

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 15:

In the FusionCompute, exporting the template to the shared directory fails, which of the following is recommended to repair the fault? (Multiple choice)

A. Make sure the network connection is OK

B. Confirm that FusionCompute is able to read and write shared directories

C. Make sure there is enough space in the shared directory

D. Restart FusionCompute

Correct Answer: ABC


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Question 1:

Huawei Cameras used self-designed chipset.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.androidauthority.com/huawei-hisilicon-852231/


Question 2:

For Huawei SDC Camera, algorithms can be downloaded from online algorithm store.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://e.huawei.com/en/products/intelligent-video-surveillance/cameras/software-definedcamera/what-is-software-defined-camera


Question 3:

Ascend 310 can provide computing power up to?

A. 2TOPS

B. 8TOPS

C. 4TOPS

D. 16TOPS

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.huawei.com/en/press-events/news/2019/8/huawei-ascend-910-most-powerful-aiprocessor


Question 4:

Which vendor are providing the largest number of IP camera chips in the market?

A. Freescale

B. Intel

C. Huawei Hisilicon D. TI

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://ipvm.com/reports/huawei-hisilicon


Question 5:

Which cameras can support 1 plus N proxy? (Choose three.)

A. M1241-Q

B. M2241-QL

C. X2241-HL

D. C6620-223

E. X1221-V

F. X1221-F

Correct Answer: BCF


Question 6:

With abundant computing power on the camera, what can we do with it?

A. Run multiple algorithms in single camera

B. Record video data for longer retention time

C. Share Intelligence to other legacy cameras

D. Edge Processing and feedback only valuable results

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which of the following are the highlights of Huawei cameras? (Choose three.)

A. Heat map

B. Video quality diagnosis

C. 1 plus N proxy

D. Up to 200 face images capture per frame

E. Color low light

F. Scenario self-adaption

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 8:

For video Diagnostic functions, how many 1080P channels can VCN handle at the same time?

A. 2

B. 1

C. 4

D. 3

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1100002519?section=j004 (video quality diagnosis)


Question 9:

VCN510-8 needs additional PoE switch if IP Cameras connected are not deployed with power adapters.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1000145260?section=j005


Question 10:

VCN3010/3020 is All-In-One design which contains Management Server, Media Forwarding Server, and Storage Server.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.tvs.com.hk/Download/HUAWEI VCN3010.pdf


Question 11:

Which VCN Product support N 0 Cluster mode?

A. VCN540

B. VCN510

C. VCN3020

D. VCN3010

E. VCN520

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://actfornet.com/products/cloud-communications/surveilance/video-surveillance-cloudplatform/vcn/vcn520-32


Question 12:

Which VCN product support RAID5?

A. VCN510

B. VCN3020

C. VCN540

D. VCN3010

E. VCN520

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://actfornet.com/products/cloud-communications/surveilance/video-surveillance-cloudplatform/vcn/vcn520-32


Question 13:

Huawei VCN platform support adding cameras through the following modes:

A. Passive registration

B. Wizard

C. Active registration

D. Mutual registration

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/en/doc/EDOC1000145260?section=j007


Question 14:

In Huawei CloudIVS Solution, A lower-level domain can download algorithms from the algorithm repository of the upper-level domain.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Huawei CloudIVS3000 is an edge cloud platform, which use lightweight container technologies.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://actfornet.com/ueditor/php/upload/file/20191020/1571543320659870.pdf