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Question 1:

An administrator currently manages AR2200 devices in the network through a single password, however the company wishes to introduce another two administrators and provide unique user credentials and privilege levels for telnet access to the network devices. What action can be taken? (Choose three)

A. Configure three users under the AAA-view, and assign each a different password.

B. The authentication mode must be changed to AAA.

C. Each administrator must be assigned a privilege level.

D. A public IP address must be assigned to each user for telnet access

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 2:

Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose three)

A. Password authentication

B. AAA local authentication

C. MD5 authentication

D. No authentication

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 3:

Which authentication modes does AAA support? (Choose three).

A. None

B. Local

C. Radius

D. 802.1X

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 4:

Refer to the configuration output. RTA has been configured using AAA as shown, and associated with the “huawei” domain. For users in the huawei domain, which authentication-scheme will be used?

A. au1

B. au2

C. au1 will be used. When au1 is deleted, users will use au2

D. au2 will be used. When au2 is deleted, users will use au1

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A user accesses a server supporting AAA, for which the authorization mode on the AAA server has been configured using the command “authorization-mode hwtacacs if-authenticated”. Which of the following statements regarding this command are true? (Choose three).

A. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using local authentication.

B. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using remote authentication.

C. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will bypass authentication.

D. The hwtacacs server will authorize the user.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 6:

What of the following statements is correct regarding access control list types and ranges?

A. A basic ACL value ranges from 1000-2999

B. An advanced ACL value ranges from 3000-4000

C. A layer 2 ACL value ranges from 4000-4999

D. An interface ACL value ranges 1000-2000

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?

A. Source interface

B. Destination port number

C. Protocol number

D. Time-range

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements regarding ACL 2001 is correct?

A. Packets from network 10.0.1.0/24 network will be denied.

B. Packets from network 10.0.1.0/24 network will be permitted.

C. Packets destined for network 10.0.1.0/24 will be denied.

D. Packets destined for network 10.0.1.0/24 will be permitted.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Refer to the configuration output. A network administrator configured the ACL on router RTA, as shown.

Which of the following statements regarding the rule order are correct? (Choose two).

A. The rule-number of the first rule is 1

B. The rule-number of the first rule is 5

C. The rule-number of the second rule is 2

D. The rule-number of the second rule is 10

Correct Answer: BD


Question 10:

Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has configured ACL 2000 to filter packets on RTA, as shown.

Which of following statements regarding the subsequent behavior are correct? (Choose two).

A. RTA will forward packets received from Host A.

B. RTA will drop packets received from Host A.

C. RTA will forward packets received from Host B.

D. RTA will drop packets received from Host B.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

Refer to the graphic. The network administrator wishes to deny Host A access to the HTTP server but allow access to all other servers. Which of the following ACL rules will achieve this?

A. Rule deny tcp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 21

B. Rule deny tcp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 80

C. Rule deny udp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 21

D. Rule deny udp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 80

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Following a failure of services in the network, an administrator discovered that the configuration in one of the enterprise routers had been changed. What actions can be taken by the administrator to prevent further changes? (Choose three)

A. The administrator should limit access by setting the login privilege of users to 0.

B. The administrator should configure AAA to manage user authorization on the router.

C. The administrator should configure an ACL to allow only the administrator to manage the router.

D. The administrator should configure port-security on the router

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 13:

[RTA]acl 2001 [RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule 20 permit source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 [RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule 10 deny source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the configuration of the ACL on RTA?

A. Packets from network 20.1.1.0/24 network will be denied.

B. Packets from network 20.1.1.0/24 network will be permitted.

C. Packets destined for network 20.1.1.0/24 will be denied.

D. Packets destined for network 20.1.1.0/24 will be permitted.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

[RTA]acl 2001 [RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule deny source 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.0 [RTA-acl-basic-2001]rule deny source 172.16.0.0 0.255.0.0

Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the configuration of the ACL on RTA? (Choose two).

A. Packets from network 172.16.1.1/32 will be denied.

B. Packets from network 172.16.1.0/24 will be denied

C. Packets from network 172.17.1.0/24 will be denied

D. Packets from network 172.18.0.0/16 will be denied.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 15:

The network administrator wants to improve the performance of network transmission, what steps can the administrator take? (Choose two)

A. Change the work mode to full duplex of each end station.

B. Link the end stations together using a switch.

C. Change the work mode to half duplex of each end station.

D. Link the end stations together using a hub.

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has been using VEEAM and the HPE StoreOnce 3620 shown in the exhibit to backup their environment. The customer\’s legal team has asked to double their retention times for all backup sets, and they are starting to run out of space on the StoreOnce. Which options could you recommend that the customer add to their existing configuration to accommodate the new requirement? (Select two. Each option represents a separate solution.)

A. HPE StoreOnce Cloud Bank Storage

B. HPE StoreOnce 3620 24TB Capacity Upgrade Kit

C. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 16Gb Fibre Channel Network Card

D. HPE StoreOnce Gen4 10/25Gb SFP Network card

E. HPE D3710 Storage Enclosure

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/storage/disk-based-backup-systems/pip.specifications.hpe-storeonce-systems.1011014655.html


Question 2:

A customer needs NFS access on a fiber channel array. What must be included in the solution to meet this requirement?

A. StoreEver

B. Storage File Controller

C. Smart Array Controller

D. StoreOnce RMC

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/gethtml.aspx?docname=a00047729enw


Question 3:

What is the correct cable type to use when connecting a pair of switches using Long Range (LR) Transceivers?

A. Direct Attach Cable (DAC)

B. Twin-Ax

C. Single Mode Fiber

D. Multi-mode Fiber

Correct Answer: C

Single-mode uses a single relatively straight beam of light, transmitted directly through a core of glass (or occasionally plastic) that\’s usually 50 microns across. Single-mode accommodates large power levels, and is almost exclusively used for Long Range (LR) applications.

Reference: https://info.hummingbirdnetworks.com/blog/answering-your-frequently-asked-s-about-different-types-of-10-gigabit-cisco-sfp-units


Question 4:

When is it appropriate for a customer to implement HPE OneView Standard?

A. To manage multiple servers

B. To monitor their services

C. To enable the Advanced iLO license

D. To update firmware

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04111367.pdf


Question 5:

You are creating a configuration for a new Nimble HF40 array. Which tool should you use to ensure that you include adequate cache in the configuration?

A. HPE NinjaSTARS

B. HPE Storage Sizer

C. HPE OneView

D. HPE SPOCK

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer needs a single, dual-processor server for an Enterprise Resource Planning solution for a single office. The customer application uses a mix of HDDs and SSDs and up to 3TB of RAM. Which HPE Solution should you propose?

A. HPE Synergy Solution

B. HPE Apollo 2000 Server

C. HPE ML350 Gen10

D. HPE ML110 Gen10

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-8758ENW.pdf


Question 7:

What should you configure to limit the scope of broadcast domains in an Ethernet network?

A. Trunks

B. VSAN

C. Static ARP

D. VLAN

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/a00069000-9999/a00069468/a00069468enw.pdf


Question 8:

What is an access port on an Ethernet switch?

A. A port that carries FCP frames inside the network

B. A port that carries multiple VLANs

C. A port that is connected to an FCF

D. A port that carries untagged frames inside the network

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=mmr_kc-0102233


Question 9:

You are validating a configuration prior to quoting it for the customer. You plan to propose the following configuration:

Two HPE DL380 Gen10 servers with dual processors, 256GB of memory, dual 10Gb NICs, SN1100Q 16Gb dual port FC HBA, dual 800W power supplies, and high temperature fan kit HPE Nimble HF20H with 11TB storage, 960GB of cache,

dual port 10GbE NIC, and 16Gb dual port FC adapter kit

Two SN3000B FC Switches

Which tool should you use to verify firmware compatibility between the storage and server components in this proposed solution?

A. HPE NinjaSTARS

B. HPE One Configuration Advanced

C. HPE OneView Advanced

D. HPE SPOCK

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A customer has a VMware environment with HPE ProLiant servers and Nimble storage. They have been using a Windows VM to provide file services for their employees. The customer is experiencing performance issues with the solution

due to memory constraints on the virtual environment.

What could be added to the existing environment that will provide dedicated file services with better performance that would still utilize the existing storage and backup solutions?

A. HPE StoreEver 30750

B. HPE Storage Performance File Controller

C. HPE StoreEasy 1460 Storage

D. HPE StoreEasy 1650 Expanded Storage

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

The information shown is displayed for a Nimble array you are installing. The customer\’s administrator has asked you for the speed at which the Nimble ports are connecting to their SAN switches, and you have run the command shown to

determine the number of gigabits per second used by this port connection.

What speed does the exhibit indicate is in use?

A. 18

B. 32

C. 6

D. 8

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A retail company recently implemented a Video surveillance solution. They now need an MSA storage solution with 100TB capacity. They want to be able to add more disk capacity if needed. Which HPE tool can help you choose a storage solution, determine the total usable capacity, and create a BOM?

A. HPE SPOCK

B. HPE NinjaSTARS

C. HPE Storage Sizing Tool

D. HPE One Config Advanced

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What is a feature of the MSA 1050 that will help your Storage Customer better utilize storage resources?

A. block, file, and object access

B. Triple parity RAID

C. Automated Tiering

D. 99.9999% guaranteed availability

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/A00015961ENW.pdf?


Question 14:

A customer requires a management solution that will provide email notifications if hardware errors occur on their servers. Which management solution provides this functionality?

A. UEFI System Configuration

B. iLO Advanced Edition

C. HPE SUM

D. HPE SUT

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docLocale=en_USanddocId=emr_na- a00026111en_us


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer is planning to deploy a branch office server rack What should you change in your configuration to ensure it meets the customer requirements?

A. Change the controller to an AF20.

B. Change the 10GbE Optical ports to Fibre Channel.

C. Change the 10GbE Optical ports to 10BaseT.

D. Change the controller to an HF20H.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which two statements about distributed automatic radio resource provisioning (DARRP) are correct? (Choose two.)

A. DARRP performs continuous spectrum analysis to detect sources of interference. It uses this information to allow the AP to select the optimum channel.

B. DARRP performs measurements of the number of BSSIDs and their signal strength (RSSI). The controller then uses this information to select the optimum channel for the AP.

C. DARRP measurements can be scheduled to occur at specific times.

D. DARRP requires that wireless intrusion detection (WIDS) be enabled to detect neighboring devices.

Correct Answer: AD

DARRP (Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) technology ensures the wireless infrastructure is always optimized to deliver maximum performance. Fortinet APs enabled with this advanced feature continuously monitor the RF environment for interference, noise and signals from neighboring APs, enabling the FortiGate WLAN Controller to determine the optimal RF power levels for each AP on the network. When a new AP is provisioned, DARRP also ensures that it chooses the optimal channel, without administrator intervention.

Reference: http://www.corex.at/Produktinfos/FortiOS_Wireless.pdf


Question 2:

Which factor is the best indicator of wireless client connection quality?

A. Downstream link rate, the connection rate for the AP to the client

B. The receive signal strength (RSS) of the client at the AP

C. Upstream link rate, the connection rate for the client to the AP

D. The channel utilization of the channel the client is using

Correct Answer: B

SSI, or “Received Signal Strength Indicator,” is a measurement of how well your device can hear a signal from an access point or router. It\’s a value that is useful for determining if you have enough signal to get a good wireless connection.

Reference: https://www.metageek.com/training/resources/understanding-rssi.html


Question 3:

When configuring Auto TX Power control on an AP radio, which two statements best describe how the radio responds? (Choose two.)

A. When the AP detects any other wireless signal stronger that -70 dBm, it will reduce its transmission power until it reaches the minimum configured TX power limit.

B. When the AP detects PF Interference from an unknown source such as a cordless phone with a signal stronger that -70 dBm, it will increase its transmission power until it reaches the maximum configured TX power limit.

C. When the AP detects any wireless client signal weaker than -70 dBm, it will reduce its transmission power until it reaches the maximum configured TX power limit.

D. When the AP detects any interference from a trusted neighboring AP stronger that -70 dBm, it will reduce its transmission power until it reaches the minimum configured TX power limit.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://www.watchguard.com/help/docs/help-center/en-US/Content/en-US/Fireware/wireless/ ap_wireless_signalstrength_c.html


Question 4:

Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit A.

Exhibit B.

Exhibit C.

A wireless network has been installed in a small office building and is being used by a business to connect its wireless clients. The network is used for multiple purposes, including corporate access, guest access, and connecting point-of-sale and IoТ devices.

Users connecting to the guest network located in the reception area are reporting slow performance. The network administrator is reviewing the information shown in the exhibits as part of the ongoing investigation of the problem. They show the profile used for the AP and the controller RF analysis output together with a screenshot of the GUI showing a summary of the AP and its neighboring APs.

To improve performance for the users connecting to the guest network in this area, which configuration change is most likely to improve performance?

A. Increase the transmission power of the AP radios

B. Enable frequency handoff on the AP to band steer clients

C. Reduce the number of wireless networks being broadcast by the AP

D. Install another AP in the reception area to improve available bandwidth

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which two statements about background rogue scanning are correct? (Choose two.)

A. A dedicated radio configured for background scanning can support the connection of wireless clients

B. When detecting rogue APs, a dedicated radio configured for background scanning can suppress the rogue AP

C. Background rogue scanning requires DARRP to be enabled on the AP instance

D. A dedicated radio configured for background scanning can detect rogue devices on all other channels in its configured frequency band.

Correct Answer: AB

To enable rogue AP scanning

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/723e20ad-509811e9-94bf-00505692583a/FortiWiFi_and_FortiAP-6.2.0-Configuration_Guide.pdf


Question 6:

When configuring a wireless network for dynamic VLAN allocation, which three IETF attributes must be supplied by the radius server? (Choose three.)

A. 81 Tunnel-Private-Group-ID

B. 65 Tunnel-Medium-Type

C. 83 Tunnel-Preference

D. 58 Egress-VLAN-Name

E. 64 Tunnel-Type

Correct Answer: ABE

The RADIUS user attributes used for the VLAN ID assignment are:

IETF 64 (Tunnel Type)-set this to VLAN.

IETF 65 (Tunnel Medium Type)-set this to 802

IETF 81 (Tunnel Private Group ID)-set this to VLAN ID.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-vlan/71683dynamicvlan-config.html


Question 7:

Which two phases are part of the process to plan a wireless design project? (Choose two.)

A. Project information phase

B. Hardware selection phase

C. Site survey phase

D. Installation phase

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/computer-science/wireless-site-survey https://www.automation.com/en-us/articles/2015-2/wireless-device-network-planning-and-design


Question 8:

When enabling security fabric on the FortiGate interface to manage FortiAPs, which two types of communication channels are established between FortiGate and FortiAPs? (Choose two.)

A. Control channels

B. Security channels

C. FortLink channels

D. Data channels

Correct Answer: AD

The control channel for managing traffic, which is always encrypted by DTLS. l The data channel for carrying client data packets.

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/ac61f4d3-ce67-11e98977-00505692583a/FortiWiFi_and_FortiAP-6.2-Cookbook.pdf


Question 9:

Part of the location service registration process is to link FortiAPs in FortiPresence.

Which two management services can configure the discovered AP registration information from the FortiPresence cloud? (Choose two.)

A. AP Manager

B. FortiAP Cloud

C. FortiSwitch

D. FortiGate

Correct Answer: BD

FortiGate, FortiCloud wireless access points (send visitor data in the form of station reports directly to FortiPresence)

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/df877622-c976-11e98977-00505692583a/FortiPresence-v4.3-release-notes.pdf


Question 10:

Which two configurations are compatible for Wireless Single Sign-On (WSSO)? (Choose two.)

A. A VAP configured for captive portal authentication

B. A VAP configured for WPA2 or 3 Enterprise

C. A VAP configured to authenticate locally on FortiGate

D. A VAP configured to authenticate using a radius server

Correct Answer: BD

In the SSID choose WPA2-Enterprise authentication.

WSSO is RADIUS-based authentication that passes the user\’s user group memberships to the FortiGate.

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/b92a67f9-73a6-11ea9384-00505692583a/FortiWiFi_and_FortiAP-6.4.2-Configuration_Guide.pdf


Question 11:

Where in the controller interface can you find a wireless client\’s upstream and downstream link rates?

A. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag ksta command

B. On the controller CLI, using the diag wireless-controller wlac -d sta command

C. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag -d sta command

D. On the controller CLI, using the WiFi Client monitor

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which administrative access method must be enabled on a FortiGate interface to allow APs to connect and function?

A. Security Fabric

B. SSH

C. HTTPS

D. FortiTelemetry

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.9/cookbook/788897/configuring-the-rootfortigate-and-downstream-fortigates


Question 13:

You are investigating a wireless performance issue and you are trying to audit the neighboring APs in the PF environment. You review the Rogue APs widget on the GUI but it is empty, despite the known presence of other APs.

Which configuration change will allow neighboring APs to be successfully detected?

A. Enable Locate WiFi clients when not connected in the relevant AP profiles.

B. Enable Monitor channel utilization on the relevant AP profiles.

C. Ensure that all allowed channels are enabled for the AP radios.

D. Enable Radio resource provisioning on the relevant AP profiles.

Correct Answer: D

The ARRP (Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) profile improves upon DARRP (Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) by allowing more factors to be considered to optimize channel selection among FortiAPs. DARRP uses the neighbor APs channels and signal strength collected from the background scan for channel selection.

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/new-features/228374/add-arrp-profile-forwireless-controller-6-4-2


Question 14:

Which two roles does FortiPresence analytics assist in generating presence reports? (Choose two.)

A. Gathering details about on site visitors

B. Predicting the number of guest users visiting on-site

C. Comparing current data with historical records

D. Reporting potential threats by guests on site

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

As standard best practice, which configuration should be performed before configuring FortiAPs using a FortiGate wireless controller?

A. Create wireless LAN specific policies

B. Preauthorize APs

C. Create a custom AP profile

D. Set the wireless controller country setting

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/6.4.1/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/547298/ complex-wireless-network-example


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Question 1:

A customer wants to deploy NVMe/FC along with an existing FC SAN fabric using ONTAP 9.8. In this scenario, which two actions are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Enable NVMe/FC on the existing FC SVM.

B. Create new zoning on fabric switches.

C. Upgrade your FC switches from 16 GB to 32 GB.

D. Use existing zoning on fabric switches.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 2:

Click the Exhibit button.

You are configuring a new NetApp ONTAP cluster and are connecting the nodes to Cisco MDS SAN switches. You connect one of the nodes to switch port fc1/11 and run the commands that are shown in the exhibit. The SAN LIFs are enabled but are not operationally online, and none of the SAN hosts can access their LUNs on the ONTAP cluster.

In this scenario, which configuration would cause this problem?

A. NPIV is not enabled on the switches.

B. Interoperability mode is not enabled on the switches.

C. NPV is not enabled on the switches.

D. The in-order guarantee is not enabled on the switch.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You are installing an AFF A250 system with ONTAP 9.8 software. Your customer asks you about the recommended LIF configuration for the iSCSI protocol.

In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Each node in an iSCSI configuration must be connected to a minimum of two Ethernet switches.

B. Each SVM in an iSCSI configuration must have a minimum of two LIFs per node.

C. All LIFs from the SVM are connected to a single Ethernet switch.

D. Each SVM in an iSCSI configuration must have a minimum of one LIF per node.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

A customer has a 4-node cluster consisting of a FAS8020 system and an AFF A220 system that is running iSCSI workloads across two separate SVMs. The FAS8020 system is reaching end of support, so they add a new AFF A400 system to migrate workloads off the FAS8020 system. The customer wants to migrate data off the FAS8020 aggregate n1_aggr1 on SVM2 to the AFF A400 aggregate n5_aggr1 on SVM1.

In this scenario, which NetApp command would accomplish this task?

A. volume move

B. aggregate reallocation

C. volume reallocation

D. volume rehost

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which NetApp tool provides a detailed inventory of SAN components?

A. Hardware Universe

B. Active IQ Config Advisor

C. Interoperability Matrix Tool

D. Active IQ OneCollect

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

You want to move a SAN LIF and preserve its configuration information and avoid rezoning the switch fabric.

In this scenario, which two steps must be performed to fulfill this goal? (Choose two.)

A. Keep the SAN LIF online before it is moved.

B. Take the SAN LIF offline before it is moved.

C. Move the SAN LIFs to another node in a cluster on different storage virtual machines (SVMs).

D. Move the SAN LIFs to another node in a cluster on existing storage virtual machines (SVMs).

Correct Answer: BD


Question 7:

Your customer asks you how to connect a host for SAN access to the newly installed AFF A400 system. In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Direct connection to the nodes from the hosts with FC is not supported.

B. Direct connection to the nodes from the hosts with iSCSI is not supported.

C. Direct connection to the nodes from the hosts with iSCSI is supported.

D. Direct connection to the nodes from the hosts with FC is supported.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Click the Exhibit button.

In an NVMe/FC environment, the host cannot discover the namespace on the AFF system. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. The NQN is not correct.

B. The host MPIO drivers are not installed.

C. NVMe is not supported on the FC adapter.

D. The NVMe service is not running on the SVM.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

You are designing a new 4-node AFF A400 SAN cluster with 20 iSCSI hosts. Each AFF A400 node will have four data LIFs. Each iSCSI host needs to access every LUN over two LIFs per node on every SAN node.

In this scenario, which NetApp SAN feature enables this connectivity?

A. selective LUN mapping

B. port sets

C. HBA queue depth

D. asymmetric namespace

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You are planning on implementing a new SAN on AFF A400 controllers. The data set consists of unique 1 KB files that will be encrypted before being written to the SAN.

In this scenario, which ONTAP inline storage efficiency will provide 4:1 savings for this workload?

A. autogrow

B. deduplication

C. compression

D. compaction

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

While changing the network connections on your ONTAP cluster from twinax to fiber, the ports experience network connectivity issues. You want to verify which speeds the ports support and ensure that you have supported transceivers.

In this scenario, which two action would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Use Hardware Universe to determine the supported port speeds.

B. Use the Interoperability Matrix Tool to determine the supported port speeds.

C. Use Hardware Universe to determine the supported transceivers.

D. Use the Interoperability Matrix Toll to determine the supported transceivers.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 12:

An administrator is configuring their existing Ethernet network switches to provide iSCSI LUNs to several servers. The network switches are also used for other traffic from various hosts.

In this scenario, which statement is true?

A. Use multiple VLANs to isolate iSCSI traffic from other network traffic.

B. Configure the MTU size to be larger on the switch and storage than on the host.

C. Increase the ratio of access ports to trunk ports to 2:1.

D. NetApp recommends using the same LIFs for NFS and iSCSI traffic.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

You are configuring FC ports on front-end SAN switches for a 4-node MetroCluster configuration across two data centers. You need to ensure that each data center serves FC LUNs when a FC port goes offline in one data center.

In this scenario, which front-end switch setting must be modified to avoid overlap when a new port comes online?

A. NPIV enabled

B. ANA mapped

C. WWPN reject

D. WWNN reject

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You are testing FPC path failures on a 2-node NetApp AFF All SAN Array and verify that persistent ports are correctly enabled. Before testing, a host sees four optimized paths to a LUN. You perform a node takeover and re-check the host.

Which statement is true after the node takeover?

A. The host sees two optimized paths and two non-optimized paths to the LUN.

B. The host sees two optimized paths and two dead paths to the LUN.

C. The host sees two non-optimized paths and two dead paths to the LUN.

D. The host sees four optimized paths to the LUN.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You have implemented FabricPool on your AFF ASA ONTAP 9.8 cluster. An archived database has become very active, and it requires FabricPool adjustments.

Which two steps are required to address this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Set the space guarantee on the volume.

B. Set the tiering-policy to none.

C. Use the promote cloud-retrieval-policy.

D. Remove all Snapshot copies.

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

Which statement is a disadvantage of pre-assigned libraries?

A. The server does not become available to the user until all pre-assigned libraries have been assigned.

B. Pre-assigned libraries must be identical across all SAS client applications.

C. Pre-assigned libraries must be assigned using the autoexec file.

D. The administrator cannot control which engine is used to access data in a pre-assigned library.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

The WriteMemberMetadata (WWM) permission is only found on which type of items?

A. Data libraries

B. Folders

C. Information Maps

D. Data sets

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A platform administrator needs to register OLAP cubes. What permission levels are required for this task?

A. CM for the target folder andWMMfor the OLAP schema.

B. WM for the OLAP schema and RMLE for the target folder.

C. WM for the target folder and WMM for the OLAP schema.

D. WM for the OLAP schema and WMM for the target folder.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

An identity hierarchy specifies a list of identities and the order of precedence of those identities. Which listing of identities is ranked from highest priority to lowest priority?

A. User, direct group, indirect group, SASUSERS, PUBLIC

B. User, SASUSERS, PUBLIC,directgroup, indirect group

C. SASUSERS, PUBLIC, User, direct group, indirect group

D. direct group, indirect group, User, PUBLIC, SASUSERS

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A platform administrator wants to physically segregate the physical storage for metadata in a single environment. What should the platform administrator create?

A. additional foundation repositories

B. additional custom repositories

C. additional project repositories

D. additional repository libraries

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

You used the SAS Add-In for Microsoft Office in Microsoft Excel to view a SAS OLAP cube. Which type of server is used to access the OLAP cube?

A. OLAP server

B. Workspace server

C. OLAP and workspace server

D. OLAP and batch server

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Metadata repositories are a collection of files in a physical folder. In what format are the files stored?

A. SAS data sets

B. SAS metadata sets

C. XML

D. SGML

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which statement is FALSE regarding the use of the OMABAKUP macro to backup the SAS environment?

A. It can be used to restore the backup files.

B. It can be used to reclaim unused disk space with the REORG option.

C. It stops the metadata server while performing a backup.

D. It creates a backup with minimal disruption in service.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A platform administrator used operating system commands to backup the metadata repositories and repository manager in a SAS environment. When the platform administrator attempted to restore the SAS environment, the backup files were unusable.

What is the most likely cause of the backup files being unusable?

A. The metadata server was stopped when the backup was taken.

B. The metadata server was Online when the backup was taken.

C. The metadata server was only paused to an Offline state when the backup was taken.

D. The metadata server configuration file omaconfig.xml is not included in a backup initiated by operating system commands.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An internal account is used to provide the initial connection to which server?

A. workspace server

B. stored process server

C. SAS/SHARE server

D. metadata server

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

A platform administrator needs to provide seamless access to the standard workspace server in a mixed provider environment. SAS Token Authentication is not applicable. How should the platform administrator handle passwords for external accounts?

A. Store the passwords in the metadata.

B. Store the passwords in an external file.

C. Assign the passwords to an authentication domain.

D. Store the passwords in a SAS internal account.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Place the Log events in order of Diagnostic Level for severity from Highest (most severe) to Lowest.

A. DEBUG, INFO, ERROR, WARN

B. WARN, ERROR, DEBUG, TRACE

C. ERROR, DEBUG, TRACE, WARN

D. ERROR, WARN, INFO, DEBUG

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which process does NOT create a log file by default?

A. Metadata server

B. Workspace server

C. Objectspawner

D. OLAP Server

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which of following statement is FALSE? Updating table metadata enables you to:

A. update table security settings at the metadata and operating system level.

B. update table definitions to match corresponding physical tables.

C. add table metadata for tables that exist in the physical library but have no metadata in the repository.

D. delete metadata for table definitions that exist in the metadata repository but do not have a corresponding table in the physical library.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What scaling factors should a network engineer be aware of when designing VPLS networks? (Choose 3) A. Control plane scaling.

B. Data plane scaling.

C. Network touches.

D. Route table reduction.

E. OAM tools.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 2:

When a PE node receives a PBB encapsulated frame on a B-VPLS, how does the PE determine which l-VPLS it belongs to?

A. The l-TAG in the l-SID is inspected to determine where the frame should be delivered.

B. When the B-MAC header is stripped the customer MAC address is then looked up in the FDB

C. The l-SID in the l-TAG is inspected to determine where the frame should be delivered.

D. The PE inspects the service label in the MPLS header before stripping the B-MAC header.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

How does the IEEE 802.1ag loopback function differently from the loopback feature in 802.3ah? (Choose 2)

A. Theloopbackfuntionin802.1ag is an intrusive test that will stop customer data.

B. The loopback function of 802.lag is a non-intrusive “ping” sent from a MEP to a remote MEP or MIP.

C. The loopback function in 802.3ah is an intrusive test that will loop customer data.

D. The loopback function of 802.lag is an intrusive test that will “loop” all customer data back to the original sender.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Which service component in the data plane uniquely identifies a VPLS to the far end PE node?

A. SDP id

B. Service ID

C. VC Label

D. Tunnel Label

E. Customer id

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which of the following statements regarding unicastand multicast frames is true for a traditional layer 2 switch? (Choose 2)

A. Multicast frames only forward out ports that have a known receiver.

B. Unicast frames only forward out ports that have a known receiver.

C. If the FDB is empty, unicast and multicast frames are treated equally.

D. If the FDB has an entry for the unicast frame, both unicastand multicast are treated equally.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

Which of the following describes the overhead added to a customer frame on an Ethernet link in a VPLS service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

A. The overhead consists of 26 bytes. 14 DLC 2 Ethertype 8 for mpls labels 2 for GRE

B. The overhead consists of 14 bytes for DLC.

C. The overhead consists of 18 bytes. 14 DLC 4 for mpls labels

D. The overhead consists of 22 bytes. 14 DLC 8 for mpls labels

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A customer has requested a VPLS service. The customer is using dot1q encapsulation and they have requested that all vlan tags be transparently passed. Which two SAP IDs will accept VLAN tags and pass them transparently? (Choose 2)

A. sap 1/1/1

B. sap 1/1/1:0*

C. sap 1/1/1:0

D. sap 1/1/1:*

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

H-VPLS solves the data-plane and control-plane problems with the exception of one issue. What is the concern that H-VPLS does not solve?

A. Increased LSP count.

B. Number of TLDP sessions.

C. The amount of network touches.

D. FDB consumption.

E. Increased bandwidth and replication.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

IEEE 802.3ah frames must be untagged.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

After the “disable-learning” command has been executed at the VPLS level, a new client device originates a frame. What is the result?

A. If the MAC address of this new client device does not reach the upper limit of the configured total number of MAC addresses allowed in the VPLS forwarding database, then the new MAC address will be stored.

B. The new source MAC addresses will not be entered in the VPLS service forwarding database.

C. New local source MAC addresses will not be entered in the VPLS service forwarding database, but new remote MAC addresses would continue to be entered.

D. New remote source MAC addresses will not be entered in the VPLS services forwarding database, but new local MAC addresses would continue to be entered.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

In IEEE 802.1ag, which two key functions are configured on bridge ports (SAPs and SDPs) to support CFM messages? (Choose 2)

A. MEP

B. MAP

C. MIP

D. MUP

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

What action will be taken when an MPLS router receives a frame with a label that does not exist in the LFIB?

A. The frame will be flooded.

B. The frame will be discarded.

C. The frame will be fragmented.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

A hospital in another county just received a new variant of ransom ware that infected 70% of its systems. After learning the characteristics of this ransom ware, the security team wants to implement a protection policy to stop certain files from being modified and new registry keys from being created that are relevant to the ransom ware. Which of the following policies meets this requirement?

A. Exploit prevention policy

B. Block and allow list policy

C. Access protection policy

D. Firewall rules policy

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Security operations has recently received indicators of compromise (IOCs) detailing a new piece of malware for which coverage is not available. The threat advisory recommends a list of file paths and registry keys to prevent this new malware from successfully executing. Which of the following ENS 10.5 features should be used to achieve this goal?

A. Web Control

B. Exploit Prevention

C. Real Protect

D. Access Protection

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

An ePO administrator wants to enable script scanning in the environment; however, the administrator wants to exclude several custom scripts from being scanned. Which of the following is the BEST practice for script scan exclusions?

A. Ensure wildcard characters are fully supported.

B. Use fully qualified domain names and NetBIOS names.

C. Include port numbers if they are part of the address.

D. Keep the URL short.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A company\’s security posture requires the ENS firewall to be enabled; however, the team is unsure of communication flows in the environment. In which of the following modes should the ePO administrator deploy the firewall policy to achieve flow awareness?

A. Adaptive Mode

B. Interface Mode

C. Enforce Mode

D. Observe Mode

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which of the following items are sent to the cloud when Real Protect scanning is enabled on endpoints that are connected to the Internet?

A. System information

B. Running process

C. Behavioral information

D. File reputation

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which of the following server roles has a McAfee-defined policy bundled with the product?

A. Exchange

B. Internet Information Services (IIS)

C. Active Directory

D. SQL

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

After installing ENS on a server, the server administrator finds that a specific application runs very slow, yet communication flows are still present. Which of the following remediation steps should the administrator take?

A. Remove an exclusion.

B. Create a whitelist.

C. Create an exclusion.

D. Remove a whitelist.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

An administrator wants to see more details about recent activity on an endpoint than what is shown in the ENS console. In which of the following locations can the administrator view the log files?

A. %ProgramFiles%\McAfee\Logs

B. %ProgramFiles%\McAfee\Endpoint Security\Logs

C. %ProgramData%\McAfee\Endpoint Security\Logs

D. %ProgramData%\McAfee\Logs

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

In Web Control, “Enable Web Category blocking of restricted content” is enforced. Which of the following describes the result if a user enters a restricted site?

A. The color is gray, and access is denied.

B. The pop-up color is red, and access is denied.

C. The color is orange, and access is denied.

D. The pop-up color is blue, and access denied.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

If the ePO server\’s access to the Internet is allowed, which of the following options would the administrator have to check in the McAfee ENS Migration Assistant extension?

A. Software Manager

B. Server Client Package Install

C. Master Repository

D. Workstation Client Package Install

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

The network operations team has configured the company\’s VPN connector to deny connectivity if virus scan definitions are older than seven days. In order for a user to immediately meet the VPN connector\’s policy, which of the following should the administrator enable?

A. Managed custom tasks

B. “Update now” button

C. Default client update task schedule

D. Proxy server

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which of the following components can the Endpoint Migration Assistant tool migrate?

A. Deployment tasks

B. Dashboards

C. Server tasks D. Host IPS catalog

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

The ePO administrator sees the ENS firewall has been disabled on an endpoint in ePO. The end user states that no changes were made to the McAfee products on the endpoint in question.

Which of the following questions should the administrator ask the end user about the McAfee icon to validate that the ENS firewall might be disabled?

A. Is the icon flashing/blinking?

B. Has the endpoint emitted a notification/alert sound (e.g., an error sound)?

C. Is there a notification bubble displayed in the system notification area?

D. Is the icon a color gray with a red/white exclamation mark?

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A user goes to four different websites, each with a different rating. One of the four sites is blocked and unable to be accessed. Using default configuration to determine the rating, which of the following ratings does this site have?

A. Gray

B. Red

C. Yellow

D. Green

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which of the following groups of legacy products can be migrated to ENS 10.5?

A. VirusScan Enterprise, Host Intrusion Prevention, and SiteAdvisor Enterprise

B. Host Intrusion Prevention, SiteAdvisor Enterprise, and Data Loss Prevention

C. VirusScan Enterprise, Host Intrusion Prevention, and Data Loss Prevention

D. Host Intrusion Prevention, SiteAdvisor Enterprise, and Application Control

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

You need to access user claims in the e-commerce web app. What should you do first?

A. Write custom code to make a Microsoft Graph API call from the e commerce web app.

B. Assign the Contributor RBAC role to the e-commerce web app by using the Resource Manager create role assignment API

C. Update the e-commerce web app to read the HTTP request header values.

D. Using the Azure CU, enable Cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) from the e- commerce checkout API to the e-commerce web

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

You need to ensure that the solution can meet the scaling requirements for Policy Service. Which Azure Application Insights data model should you use?

A. an Application Insights trace

B. an Application Insights metric

C. an Application Insights dependency

D. an Application Insights event

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

You need to ensure that the Policy service can implement the policy actions. Which code segment should you insert at line EG07 in EventGridController.cs?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?

A. an Azure Event Hub

B. an Azure Notification Hub

C. an Azure Logic App

D. an Azure Service Bus

Correct Answer: A

Scenario: Create a workflow to send an email message when the settings of VM4 are modified.

You can start an automated logic app workflow when specific events happen in Azure resources or third-party resources. These resources can publish those events to an Azure event grid. In turn, the event grid pushes those events to subscribers that have queues, webhooks, or event hubs as endpoints. As a subscriber, your logic app can wait for those events from the event grid before running automated workflows to perform tasks – without you writing any code.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app


Question 5:

Which pricing tier should you recommend for WebApp?

A. D1

B. P1v2

C. S1

D. B1

Correct Answer: C

Standard supports up to 10 instances, and would be enough as the Standard plan includes auto scale that can automatically adjust the number of virtual machine instances running to match your traffic needs.

Scenario: Ensure that WebApp1 can adjust the number of instances automatically based on the load and can scale up to five instances

Incorrect Answers:

D: Basic supports only up to 3 instances.

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/app-service/windows/


Question 6:

You need to configure AG1. What should you create?

A. a basic routing rule

B. a multi-site listener

C. a basic listener

D. a URL path-based routing rule

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-create-url- route-portal


Question 7:

What should you create to configure AG2?

A. multi-site listeners

B. URL path-based routing rules

C. basic routing rules

D. an additional public IP address

E. basic listeners

Correct Answer: A

-AG2 must load balance incoming traffic in the following manner:

-http://www.adatum.com will be load balanced across Pool21.

-http://fabrikam.com will be load balanced across Pool22.

You need to configure an Azure Application Gateway with multi-site listeners to direct different URLs to different pools.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/multiple-site-overview


Question 8:

You need to meet the security requirements. What should you use?

A. HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS)

B. Direct Line API

C. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D. Bot Framework Portal

E. Bot Framework authentication

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.

Solution: Configure notifications in the Azure API Management instance.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- configure-notifications


Question 10:

You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.

Solution: Create and apply a custom outbound Azure API Management policy.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- configure-notifications


Question 11:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.

Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud-based email service.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- configure-notifications


Question 12:

You need to prepare the environment to meet the authentication requirements.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Allow inbound TCP port 8080 to the domain controllers in the Miami office

B. Install Azure AD Connect on a server in the Miami office and enable Pass-through Authentication

C. Install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) role on a domain controller in the Miami office

D. Join the client computers in the Miami office to Azure AD

E. Add http://autologon.microsoftazuread-sso.com to the intranet zone of each client computer in the Miami office.

Correct Answer: BE

B: Seamless SSO works with any method of cloud authentication – Password Hash Synchronization or Pass-through Authentication, and can be enabled via Azure AD Connect.

E: You can gradually roll out Seamless SSO to your users. You start by adding the following Azure AD URL to all or selected users\’ Intranet zone settings by using Group Policy in Active Directory: https://autologon.microsoftazuread-sso.com Incorrect Answers:

A: Azure AD connect does not port 8080. It uses port 443.

C: Seamless SSO is not applicable to Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS).

D: Seamless SSO needs the user\’s device to be domain-joined, but doesn\’t need for the device to be Azure AD Joined.

Scenario: Users in the Miami office must use Azure Active Directory Seamless Single Sign-on (Azure AD Seamless SSO) when accessing resources in Azure. Planned Azure AD Infrastructure include: The on-premises Active Directory domain will be synchronized to Azure AD.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/connect/active-directory-aadconnect-sso-quick-start


Question 13:

Which blade should you instruct the finance department auditors to use?

A. Partner information

B. Cost analysis

C. Resource providers

D. Invoices

Correct Answer: D

You can opt in and configure additional recipients to receive your Azure invoice in an email. This feature may not be available for certain subscriptions such as support offers, Enterprise Agreements, or Azure in Open.

1.

Select your subscription from the Subscriptions page. Opt-in for each subscription you own. Click Invoices then Email my invoice.

2.

Click Opt in and accept the terms.

Scenario: During the testing phase, auditors in the finance department must be able to review all Azure costs from the past week.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-download-azure-invoice-daily-usage-date


Question 14:

You need to define a custom domain name for Azure AD to support the planned infrastructure. Which domain name should you use?

A. ad.humongousinsurance.com

B. humongousinsurance.local

C. humongousinsurance.com

D. humongousinsurance.onmicrosoft.com

Correct Answer: C

Every Azure AD directory comes with an initial domain name in the form of domainname.onmicrosoft.com. The initial domain name cannot be changed or deleted, but you can add your corporate domain name to Azure AD as well. For

example, your organization probably has other domain names used to do business and users who sign in using your corporate domain name. Adding custom domain names to Azure AD allows you to assign user names in the directory that

are familiar to your users, such as ‘[email protected]’ instead of \’[email protected] name.onmicrosoft.com\’.

Scenario:

Network Infrastructure: Each office has a local data center that contains all the servers for that office. Each office has a dedicated connection to the Internet.

Humongous Insurance has a single-domain Active Directory forest named humongousinsurance.com

Planned Azure AD Infrastructure: The on-premises Active Directory domain will be synchronized to Azure AD.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/fundamentals/add-custom-domain


Question 15:

You are planning the move of App1 to Azure.

You create a network security group (NSG).

You need to recommend a solution to provide users with access to App1.

What should you recommend?

A. Create an outgoing security rule for port 443 from the Internet. Associate the NSG to all the subnets.

B. Create an incoming security rule for port 443 from the Internet. Associate the NSG to all the subnets.

C. Create an incoming security rule for port 443 from the Internet. Associate the NSG to the subnet that contains the web servers.

D. Create an outgoing security rule for port 443 from the Internet. Associate the NSG to the subnet that contains the web servers.

Correct Answer: C

As App1 is public-facing we need an incoming security rule, related to the access of the web servers.

Scenario: You have a public-facing application named App1. App1 is comprised of the following three tiers: aSQL database, a web front end, and a processing middle tier.

Each tier is comprised of five virtual machines. Users access the web front end by using HTTPS only.


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Question 1:

SIMULATION

Your company recently purchased a new building down the street from the existing office. For each of the tasks below, select the appropriate antenna type and encryption object for all wireless access point (AP).

1.

Create an encrypted wireless connection between the two buildings that BEST controls signal propagation, while maximizing security.

2.

Restrict the wireless signal generated by the access points (APs) inside Building 1, so that it minimizes broadcast beyond the building.

3.

Maximize wireless coverage inside Building 1.

4.

Building 1\’s internal wireless network is for visitors only and must not require any special configuration on the visitor\’s device to connect. Instructions: When you have completed the simulation, select the Done button to submit.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

You have been tasked with testing a CAT5e cable. A summary of the test results can be found on the screen.

Instructions

Step 1: Select the tool that was used to create the cable test results.

Step 2: Interpret the test results and select the option that explains the results. After you are done with your analysis, click the ‘Submit’ button.

Step 3: You have determined that the original crimp is faulty. Re-crimp the cable connector using the T568B cabling standard. Choose the correct cable for each pin in the connector by clicking on the pin and selecting a cable color.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.comms-express.com/infozone/article/t568a-and-t568b/


Question 3:

You are tasked with creating a network that will accomplish the following requirements.

Requirements:

The remote Sales Team must be able to connect to the corporate network.

Each department must have ONLY two PCs and a server.

Eqach department must be segmented from each other.

The following VLANs have been designed:

VLAN 2 – Finance

VLAN 12 – Sales

VLAN 22 – Human Resources (HR)

Routing for VLAN 12 is implemented on the router. Routing for VLAN 2 and VLAN 22 is on the switch.

Instructions

Complete the network by dragging the required objects onto the diagram.

Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

Workstations are unable to access the Internet after a recent power outage. Configure the appropriate devices to ensure ALL workstations have Internet connectivity. Instructions: All ports can be enabled (green) or disabled (red). When you have completed the simulation please select the Done button.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

All ports should be enabled.


Question 5:

You have been tasked with testing a CAT5e cable. A summary of the test results can be found on the screen.

Step 1: Select the tool that was used to create the cable test results.

Step 2: Interpret the test results and select the option that explains the results. After you are done with your analysis, click the ‘Submit Cable Test Analysis’ button.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

A Cable Certifier provides “Pass” or “Fail” information in accordance with industry standards but can also show detailed information when a “Fail” occurs. This includes shorts, the wire pairs involved and the distance to the short. When a short is identified, at the full length of the cable it means the cable has not been crimped correctly.


Question 6:

HOTSPOT Corporate headquarters provided your office a portion of their class B subnet to use at a new office location. Range Given: 172.30.232.0/24

Sales

57 devices

HR

23 devices

IT

12 devices

Finance 32 devices

Marketing 9 devices

INSTRUCTIONS

Allocate the minimum number of addresses (using CIDR notation) needed to accommodate each department.

After accommodating each department, identify the unused portion of the subnet by responding to the question on the graphic.

All drop downs must be filled.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

You have been tasked with implementing an ACL on the router that will:

1.

Permit appropriate, secure remote-access technologies from the management network to all other local network segments. Explicitly deny all other traffic from the management network

2.

Ensure the user subnet cannot remotely menage devices in the Linux and Windows Server segments

3.

Prohibit any traffic that has not been specifically allowed.

Correct Answer:

See the image for solution.


Question 8:

When configuring a wireless access point, Zach, a network administrator, needs to determine the MAC address of a local printer. Which of the following commands would be MOST helpful in determining the MAC address?

A. ping

B. arp

C. route

D. dig

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Kim, the client, has requested a cost-effective network solution to accommodate the ability to reconfigure the office space as needed. Which networking solution would provide the BEST solution?

A. Private IP Addressing

B. Wireless Access Points

C. Wide Area Networking

D. Virtual Local Area Networks

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

A SOHO office recently installed a wireless network for employees to use during lunch breaks. As such, the access point was placed in the kitchen area by the microwave. Employees have been reporting intermittent connectivity when using the wireless network. Which of the following would BEST improve connectivity?

A. Disable SSID broadcast

B. Increase the signal strength

C. Move the access point

D. Change the broadcast channel

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which of the following security threats relies primarily on user deception and misinformation?

A. Rogue access points

B. DoS attacks

C. Man-in-the-middle attacks

D. Phishing

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

At which of the following layers of the OSI model do packets exist?

A. Network

B. Session

C. Data link

D. Transport

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A company is having a new T1 line installed. Which of the following will the connection MOST likely terminate to?

A. Core switch

B. MDF

C. Ethernet router

D. IDF

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A network technician performs several switch commands to enable various advanced features on the switch in the accounting department. During the configuration changes, several users from this department report connectivity issues. Which of the following logs would the network technician need to analyze to troubleshoot the connectivity issues?

A. Router logs

B. History logs

C. Startup/bootup config logs

D. Event Viewer logs

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A technician needs to test the length of a newly installed cable run because it is believed that it exceeds the maximum specification length. Which of the following tools should be used?

A. Cable certifier

B. Toner probe

C. Cable tester

D. Protocol analyzer

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What is one method of associating a Safety Stock Quantity value to an item?

A. Upload the value using File Based Data Import (FBDI)

B. Enter your value in the Safety Stock Quantity column in the Items page.

C. Run the Safety Stock Quantity Update Process.

D. Enter your value in the Safety Stock Quantity Override column in the Items page.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/supply-chain-management/r13-update18a/faupc/manage-supply-plans.html#FAUPC2087961


Question 2:

You have run a plan for your organization and there were sales orders that have been set up for drop shipment that you cannot see in the plan.

Which two options explain why the sales orders cannot be seen in the plan? (Choose two.)

A. Drop Ship Item Validation Org has not been set up.

B. Drop Ship Demand Class has not be set up.

C. Supplier not configured in Manage Planning Source Systems

D. Include drop ship demands and supplies flag has not been checked on your plan options.

E. Planning Profile \’Enable Planning for Drop Shipments\’ has not been set to \’Yes\’.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

Your client has operations in the west coast of the US. If the customer is in the western half of the US, then they would like to ship the product from their warehouses. If it\’s in the eastern half of the US, then they want to drop ship it from a supplier.

How would you recommend they set the assignment up?

A. Set up a region for the west coast warehouse and an item-region level assignment for the drop ship.

B. Set up two region level assignments, one for the west coast and the other for the east coast.

C. Set up by each customer for the customers who should get product from each warehouse.

D. Set up an item-region assignment for the west coast warehouse and a region level assignment for the drop ship.

E. Set up an item-organization assignment for the west coast warehouse and an item-organization level assignment for the drop ship.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Demand is high leading up to the Christmas holiday every year between Dec 20 and Dec 24 and not on Christmas day (Dec 25). Your customer has two demand plans. Describe the steps to model Christmas causal factor in both demand plans.

A. Open a demand plan and add a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Create a table displaying the causal factor measure and relevant time period and modify as required. Causal factor changes in this demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also.

B. Open a demand plan and add a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Create a table displaying the causal factor measure and relevant time period and modify as required. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan.

C. Use FBDI to create a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Place value of 1 from Dec 20 to Dec 34. Causal factor upload to one demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also.

D. Use FBDI to create a new customer specific Christmas causal factor. Place value of 1 from Dec 20 to Dec 24. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan.

E. Open a demand plan and edit Christmas casual factor measure. Place value of one from Dec 20 to Dec 24 and zero for non-impacted days including Dec 25. Causal factor changes in this demand plan will reflect in the 2nd demand plan also.

F. Open a demand plan and edit Christmas casual factor measure. Place value of one from Dec 20 to Dec 24 and zero for non-impacted days including Dec 25. Causal factor changes are plan specific, so repeat the steps in the 2nd demand plan.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/supply-chain-management/r13-update17d/faupc/manage-demand-plans.html#FAUPC2032062


Question 5:

When analyzing demand fulfillment, what are the three types of recommendations that users can review and accept for expediting? (Choose three.)

A. Expedite transfer orders

B. Expedite make orders

C. Expedite buy orders

D. Expedite drop ship orders

E. Expedite make to stock orders

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/supply-chain-management/r13-update18a/faupc/manage-supply-plans.html#FAUPC2101877


Question 6:

Your current shipments forecast for Jan 2018 is 1000 and the demand planner determines that the forecast should be 1500. Describe how the demand planner can override shipments forecast. Also, what happens to the final shipments forecast measure when the demand plan is run again and the shipments forecast value changes to 1250?

A. Open a table with the Adjusted Shipments Forecast measure and enter 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure will change to 1500 and the value will persist during subsequent demand plan runs.

B. Open a table with the Shipments Forecast measure and override it to 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure will change to 1500 and the value will persist during subsequent demand plan runs.

C. Open a table with the Shipments Forecast measure and override it to 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure will change to 1500. During the subsequent demand plan run, the Final Shipments Forecast value will change to 1250.

D. Open a table with the Adjusted Shipments Forecast measure and enter 1500. The Final Shipments Forecast measure will change to 1500. During the subsequent demand plan run, the Final Shipments Forecast value will change to 1250.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which KPIs are available to measure forecasting accuracy and specify how these measures aggregated from item-organization level to higher levels.

A. MAPE, MAD, and Bias are used to measure forecast accuracy. MAD and Bias are aggregated using sum. MAPE is aggregated using weighted average.

B. MAPE, MAD, and Bias are used to measure forecast accuracy. MAPE and Bias are aggregated using weighted average. MAD is aggregated using sum.

C. MAPE, MFE, and Bias are used to measure forecast accuracy. MAPE and Bias are aggregated using weighted average. MFE is aggregated using sum.

D. MAPE, MFE, and Bias are used to measure forecast accuracy. MAPE and MFE are aggregated using weighted average. Bias is aggregated using sum.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You are in Implementation project and your customer is a global company with a complex supply chain network. Planners work across different geographies and different line of products. Each planner works with their own set of data and analysis and dashboards.

How do you configure the application so each planner can have their own custom dashboard view-able only to themselves?

A. Create public page layouts that are tailored to specific business needs.

B. You cannot create custom dashboards by user.

C. Enable layout security checkbox in the Administer Planning Security.

D. Create private page layouts that are tailored to specific business needs.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/supply-chain-management/18b/faupc/planning-central-overview.html#FAUPC2032163


Question 9:

Which four actions does Demand Management enable you to do? (Choose four.)

A. Run an unlimited number of forecast simulations to see impacts of changes in the price, running a marketing campaign, shift in weather, demand upside request, and so on.

B. Simulate changes to the dependent options forecast for build to stock items.

C. Perform side-by-side analysis on a multiple number of scenarios, and see the impact on operational and financial objectives.

D. Simulate how changes to forecasting models and parameters have an immediate impact on the statistical forecast.

E. Simulate the impact of introducing new products in particular geographic areas.

Correct Answer: ADE

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=2andcad=rjaanduact=8andved=2ahUKEwi_xLb4kqTdAhXKxYUKHdP0CwEQFjABegQICRACandurl=https://cloudcustomerconnect.oracle.com/files% 2Fe034e398c1/r13-scm-sc-planning-nfs.pdfandusg=AOvVaw2JRp8Ackai1IdYUaILkavy (page 10)


Question 10:

Which three options represent predefined hierarchies in Planning Central? (Choose three.)

A. Business unit

B. Demand Class

C. Resource

D. Exception Type

E. Pricing

F. Sales Channel

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 11:

You are setting up the plan page layout for your customer.

In which of these requirements would you use an Infotile?

A. Showing customer demand trend over a specific time period

B. Showing inventory values by product category

C. Showing a breakdown of exception in a pie chart

D. Showing on-hand value compared to targets

E. Showing inventory value across time

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

Your client wants to exclude all of the inventory from the \’Reject\’ subinventory from only one of their supply plans. What action must be taken to meet this requirement?

A. Manage Plans > Search and select supply plans > \’Organizations and Schedules\’ tab > \’Organizations\’ > \’Subinventory Netting\’ > Deselect \’Reject\’ subinventory for each organization

B. Manage Subinventories > Search and select subinventory > Deselect \’Nettable\’

C. It is not possible to exclude one subinventory from a particular supply plan.

D. Manage Plans > Search and select supply plans > \’Organizations and Schedules\’ tab > \’Supply Schedules\’ > \’Subinventory Netting\’ > Deselect \’Reject\’ subinventory for each organization

E. Manage Subinventories > Choose a material status in which \’Nettable\’ is unchecked

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Your customer wants to display a numeric measure in both pound and kilogram Units of Measure (UOM) on a table. Describe the configuration steps to display a measure in two UOMs.

A. Open a table and select Actions, View Table Configuration and click UOM tab. Select primary UOM as pound and secondary UOM as kilogram.

B. Open a table and select View, Format Measures to find the measure. Now select pound as primary UOM and kilogram as secondary UOM.

C. Open a table and select Actions, View Table Configuration and click Measure tab. Find the measure, duplicate the measure, and rename it. Now select pound as UOM for the original measure and kilogram as UOM for the duplicated measure.

D. Open a table and select View, Format Measures to find the measure. Duplicate the measure and rename it. Now select pound as UOM for the original measure and kilogram as UOM for the duplicated measure.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://learn.oracle.com/pls/web_prod-plq-dad/learn?p=TP:39618:0:44128:44202


Question 14:

Your client has a requirement to restrict Supply Plan data access. Identify three Data Access Set detail entities that can be used to restrict plan data access. (Choose three.)

A. Supplier

B. Item

C. Transaction Type

D. Customer

E. Material Planner

F. Demand Class

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 15:

How can you deliver a forecast for drop shipments?

A. It cannot be done at this time.

B. Generate manually using Planning Analytics

C. Excel upload using File Based Data Import Process

D. Create based on the supplier performance for drop shipment collection

E. Create based on the drop shipment or booking history; the ship from will be the drop ship validation organization

Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/supply-chain-management/r13-update18a/faupc/manage-supply-network-model.html#FAUPC2085579